Indian Economy: Statement-I & Statement-II (Assertion-Reason Style) PYQ.
UPSC Prelims Indian Economy previous year questions in the "Statement-I & Statement-II (Assertion-Reason Style)" question pattern — real questions with answers and explanations.
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A.Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
B.Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
C.Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
D.Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Explanation: * Statement I is not correct: While core agricultural income is exempted under the Income Tax Act, non-agricultural income such as earnings from poultry farming, dairy farming, and bee hiving is not exempted from taxation. * Statement II is correct: Under section 2(14) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the term "capital asset" explicitly excludes rural agricultural land in India, meaning any gain from its sale is not taxable as capital gains. Thus, option (d) is correct.
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A.Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
B.Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
C.Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
D.Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Explanation: * Statement I is correct: Bondholders generally face lower financial risk than stockholders because they receive fixed interest payments and hold priority positions. * Statement II is correct: Bondholders lend money to the company (debt), while stockholders purchase equity shares and act as its owners. * Statement III is correct: In liquidation or bankruptcy situations, bondholders are legally prioritized over stockholders for repayment. * Since both II (creditor status) and III (payment priority) explain why bondholders are at lower risk than equity holders, option (a) is correct.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.
Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
B.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
C.Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
D.Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Explanation: * (a) is correct: If the US Congress fails to raise or suspend its statutory debt ceiling and the Treasury runs out of cash, a historic sovereign debt default would occur, preventing holders of US Treasury Bonds from successfully exercising their claims to collect immediate obligations. This validates Statement I. * US government debt and currency operate as fiat instruments, meaning they are not backed by physical hard commodities (like gold or silver reserves) but rely entirely on the full faith, credit, and stability of the issuing sovereign government. This validates Statement II. * Because the reality that US bonds are backed solely by governmental faith and no physical assets (Statement II) is the precise reason why an institutional default would completely block bondholders from enforcing claims or extracting underlying value (Statement I), Statement II provides the direct causal explanation for Statement I.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.
Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
B.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
C.Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
D.Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Explanation: * Statement I is correct: A syndicated loan is a large financing package structured by a group of financial institutions working together to pool funds for a single borrower. This setup allows individual banks to participate in large projects while effectively spreading and mitigating the risk of borrower default across their capital bases. * Statement II is incorrect: Syndicated lending structures are highly versatile; the agreed facility can be issued as a fixed lump sum of funds, an adaptable revolving line of credit, or a combination of both options.
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Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America.
Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.
A.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
B.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
C.Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
D.Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Explanation: * Statement I is incorrect: India actively imports apples from the United States; following bilateral adjustments, India scrapped its 20 per cent retaliatory tariffs on American agricultural goods, leading to a major surge in US apple imports. * Statement II is correct: Under India's import and food safety policies, the import of any Genetically Modified (GM) foods or Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) strictly requires mandatory prior clearance from the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) alongside a No Objection Certificate from the FSSAI. Thus, option (d) is correct.
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📌 Core Agriculture and Allied SectorsRelevance 95%
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