Question 1

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:
1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.
2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

Accepted Answer

All three statements are correct.. * All three statements are incorrect: * Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 393 explicitly states: "This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India." * Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 395 explicitly details the repeal of the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935. * Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 394 explicitly states that the remaining parts of the Constitution shall come into effect on 26th January, 1950 (the date of commencement). * Because all three given statements are false, conclusion (b) is correct.

Question 2

Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?
1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains - built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

Accepted Answer

1 and 2. * Statement 1 is incorrect: The Parliament passed the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act in 2016, not 2018 (though its clauses regarding 4% job and 5% higher education reservation are correct, the wrong year invalidates it). * Statement 2 is correct: Launched in 2015, the Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) targets achieving universal accessibility across three key areas: built environment, public transport systems, and information/ICT networks. * Statement 3 is incorrect: The NDFDC operates under the administrative wing of the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment), not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

Question 3

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:
1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

Accepted Answer

There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.. * All four statements are false: * Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chairperson of the committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from among its Lok Sabha members. * Statement 2 is incorrect: It reverses the ratio; it consists of 20 Lok Sabha members and 10 Rajya Sabha members. * Statement 3 is incorrect: No Minister can serve on the committee; there are no exceptions for any ministry. * Statement 4 is incorrect: Committee members are elected for a term of one year, not two years. * Since all four statements are incorrect, conclusion (d) applies.

Question 4

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:
1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

Accepted Answer

There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.. * Statement 1 is incorrect: Unstarred questions require a written reply laid on the Table of the House; no oral answer is delivered. * Statement 2 is incorrect: Starred questions are those for which a Member wants an oral answer on the floor of the chamber. * Statement 3 is correct: Because unstarred questions receive written answers rather than floor time, no follow-up supplementary questions are permitted. * Since only Statement 3 is correct, conclusion (c) is the right answer.

Question 5

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:
1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

Accepted Answer

There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.. * Statement 1 is incorrect: The administration of tribal enclaves in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram is regulated under the Sixth Schedule. The Fifth Schedule applies to Scheduled Areas and Tribes in other states. * Statement 2 is correct: Under Section 10(26) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, members of Scheduled Tribes living in specific North-Eastern regions (and Ladakh) are exempt from income tax on income earned within those areas. * Statement 3 is correct: Article 243D mandates the reservation of seats in local Panchayats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, including specific proportional allocations for women belonging to those communities. * Since Statements 2 and 3 are correct, conclusion (a) applies.

Question 6

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?
1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
Select the answer using the code given below:

Accepted Answer

1 only. * Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Section 173 of the BNSS, 2023, a Zero FIR can be filed at any police station regardless of jurisdiction, but only for cognizable offences. Non-cognizable offenses are dealt with separately under Section 174. * Statement 2 is correct: A preliminary enquiry is permitted under Section 173(3) only for specific cognizable offenses carrying a sentence of 3 to 7 years, requiring the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of DSP. * Statement 3 is incorrect: While the BNSS permits a citizen to submit crime data electronically, doing so is voluntary and not mandatory. If sent electronically, it must be signed by the informant within three days.

Question 7

Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?
1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.
Select the answer using the code given below:

Accepted Answer

1 and 2. * Statement 1 is incorrect: The Revamped RGSA was approved for implementation from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026, aligning precisely with the 15th Finance Commission cycle (not starting in 2021). * Statement 2 is correct: The primary goal of the program is to strengthen the institutional governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to help deliver on the global Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) via localized planning. * Statement 3 is incorrect: Funding is not 100% centralized across all states. The cost-sharing ratio is split 60:40 for most states, 90:10 for North-Eastern/Himalayan states, and 100% strictly for Union Territories without local legislatures.

Question 8

Consider the following statements:
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

Accepted Answer

I and III only. * Statement I is not correct: Article 243B of the Constitution of India provides for a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj, but states with a population not exceeding twenty lakhs (2 million) are not obligated to establish Panchayats at the intermediate level. * Statement II is not correct: As per Article 243F(1)(a) of the Constitution, the minimum age to be chosen as a member of a Panchayat is twenty-one years, not thirty years. * Statement III is not correct: Article 243-I mandates the Governor of a State—not the Chief Minister—to constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats.

Question 9

Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

III only. * Statement I is not correct: The Lokpal's jurisdiction applies to public servants serving the Union Government both within India and abroad, as well as officers of organizations receiving substantial foreign or domestic contributions. * Statement II is not correct: While MPs and State Legislators are barred from membership, the Chairperson position is not limited to a former Chief Justice of India; it can also be filled by a former Supreme Court Judge or an eminent person with at least 25 years of specialized experience. * Statement III is correct: Under Section 3(3)(c) of the Act, a person must be at least 45 years old on the date of assuming office to be appointed as Chairperson or a Member. * Statement IV is not correct: The Lokpal is explicitly empowered to inquire into allegations against a sitting Prime Minister, subject to specific operational safeguards and exceptions such as national security or international relations.

Question 10

Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

I only. * Statement I is correct: Per Supreme Court rulings like Epuru Sudhakar (2006), the President's executive pardoning power under Article 72 is subject to limited judicial review if the choice is shown to be arbitrary, mala fide, or irrational. * Statement II is not correct: Under Article 74(1), the President is constitutionally required to act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. The pardoning power is processed through recommendations from the Ministry of Home Affairs and is not a discretionary power.

Question 11

Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

II and III only. * Statement I is correct: In accordance with Article 94 of the Constitution, upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the Speaker does not vacate their office until just before the first meeting of the newly constituted House. * Statement II is not correct: The Constitution carries no mandatory requirement for a member to resign from their political party upon being elected Speaker. (The Tenth Schedule merely exempts them from defection disqualification if they choose to do so). * Statement III is correct: Article 94(c) dictates that the Speaker may be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the House (effective majority), provided at least 14 days' prior notice has been given.

Question 12

Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Both I and II. * Statement I is not correct: Under Paragraph 6(1) of the Tenth Schedule, the authority to decide on defection disqualification cases rests with the Presiding Officer (Speaker/Chairman) of the House, not the President. * Statement II is not correct: While the original 1950 Constitution did not mention it, the term "political party" was explicitly introduced into the constitutional text by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 through the insertion of the Tenth Schedule.

Question 13

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Accepted Answer

II and III only. * Statement I is correct: An Ordinance promulgated under Article 123 (by the President) or Article 213 (by the Governor) possesses identical force, legal status, and effects as a standard legislative Act. Within limits of legislative competence, it is fully capable of amending or repealing existing Central or State Acts. * Statement II is incorrect: Ordinances are recognized as "law" under the framework of Article 13. Article 13(2) prohibits the state from enacting any law that abridges or overrides the Fundamental Rights listed in Part III; hence, an Ordinance cannot violate or abridge them. * Statement III is correct: Since an Ordinance is co-extensive with standard legislative powers, it can be issued to take effect retrospectively from a back date, with the sole exception that Article 20(1) bars retrospective penalties in criminal law.

Question 14

Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Accepted Answer

I only. * Statement I is correct: Unlike the President's framework, Article 163(1) of the Constitution explicitly states that there will be a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor, except in matters where the Constitution requires the Governor to act at their own discretion. Article 163(2) confirms that the Governor's decision on what falls under their discretion is final. * Statement II is incorrect: Under Article 200, only the Governor of the state holds the constitutional authority to reserve a State Legislative Bill and forward it for the consideration of the President. The President cannot independently or suo motu take up a state bill without it being forwarded by the Governor.

Question 15

Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule:
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor

Accepted Answer

Both I and II. * Statement I is incorrect: Paragraph 2 of the Fifth Schedule explicitly states that the executive power of a State extends to its Scheduled Areas. While special legislative authority is vested in the Governor and local governance is enhanced via PESA, the State Government does not cede its executive powers, nor does a local body assume absolute total administration. * Statement II is incorrect: Paragraph 3 of the Fifth Schedule permits the Union Government to issue binding administrative directives to the State regarding Scheduled Areas, but it contains no provision allowing the Center to take over total local administration. (A complete takeover of state administration requires the invocation of Article 356, which is an independent constitutional mechanism).

Question 16

Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor's office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

Accepted Answer

I and II only. * Subject I requires ratification: Under the proviso to Article 368(2), any amendment that alters or modifies "any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule" explicitly requires ratification by at least half of the state legislatures, since it shifts the federal balance of power. * Subject II requires ratification: The proviso to Article 368(2) explicitly protects Articles 73 and 162, which dictate the extent of the executive powers of the Union and the States respectively. * Subject III does not require ratification: Amendments concerning the conditions of the Governor's office (Article 158) do not alter the core federal architecture listed under Article 368(2) and can be carried out by Parliament through a special majority alone. * Therefore, state ratification is required for subjects I and II only.

Question 17

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

Accepted Answer

I and III only. * Statement I is correct: Article 361(1) of the Constitution grants personal legal immunity to the Governor of a State, ensuring they are not answerable to any court for official actions or the performance of their constitutional duties. * Statement II is correct: Article 361(2) dictates that no criminal proceedings whatsoever can be instituted, processed, or continued against the Governor in any court during their official tenure of office. * Statement III is correct: Article 194(2) protects the freedom of speech of lawmakers within the legislature, ensuring that members of a State Legislature face no liability or judicial proceedings in court for anything said or voted during sessions.

Question 18

With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. * Statement 1 is correct: The 1935 Act proposed creating a comprehensive "Federation of India" that treated British Indian provinces and princely states as administrative units (though it never materialised due to lack of states' consent). * Statement 2 is incorrect: The Act introduced dyarchy at the Center, under which sensitive key departments—including Defence, External Affairs, Ecclesiastical Affairs, and Tribal Areas—were classified as reserved subjects placed directly under the control of the Governor-General, not the federal legislature.

Question 19

As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. * Article 368(1) explicitly establishes that the Parliament may, in the exercise of its constituent power, amend any provision of the Constitution by way of addition, variation, or repeal in accordance with the prescribed legal procedure. Hence, all three methods are correct.

Question 20

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

Accepted Answer

2 and 3 only. * Statement 1 is correct: Article 109 of the Constitution outlines the special legal procedure for passing Money Bills, granting overriding authority to the Lok Sabha. * Statement 2 is correct: A Money Bill cannot originate or be introduced inside the Council of States (Rajya Sabha); it can only start in the Lok Sabha. * Statement 3 is correct: The Rajya Sabha must return the bill within 14 days; it can provide non-binding recommendations or changes, but lacks the power to reject it. * Statement 4 is incorrect: The Lok Sabha holds full discretion to either accept or completely reject any of the structural modifications suggested by the Rajya Sabha. If the Lok Sabha rejects the amendments, the bill is deemed passed by both Houses in its original form.

Question 21

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3 only. * Following the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002, the council serves as a regional planning body for eight states (Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and Mizoram). * Its statutory membership explicitly comprises the Governors of these constituent states, the Chief Ministers of these states, and three distinct members formally nominated by the President of India. The Home Minister is not a structural member added under this clause, making option (a) correct.

Question 22

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili

Accepted Answer

1 and 4. * The 71st Amendment, enacted in 1992, included three more languages, i.e. Konkani, Meitei (Manipuri) and Nepali. The 92nd Amendment, added Bodo, Dogri Santhali and Maithali in 2003, raising the total number of languages to 22. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Question 23

Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. * Statement 1 is correct: Part IX-A of the Indian Constitution deals with Municipalities (Articles 243-P to 243-ZG) and was added by the 74th Amendment Act of 1992. * Statement 2 is correct: Part XVIII of the Indian Constitution outlines the Emergency Provisions (Articles 352 to 360), including National, State, and Financial emergencies. * Statement 3 is correct: The legal procedure for amending the constitution is explicitly laid down in Part XX (Article 368).

Question 24

Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Accepted Answer

2 and 3. * Statement 1 is correct: The late Speaker G.M.C. Balayogi initially constituted an ad hoc Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha in the year 2000, and it eventually became a permanent standing committee of the House in 2015. * Statement 2 is incorrect: Any citizen or person can lodge a formal complaint against a Lok Sabha MP through another Lok Sabha member, provided they submit supporting evidence and an affidavit declaring the filing is not frivolous. MPs can also directly submit complaints, in which case an affidavit is waived. * Statement 3 is correct: Parliamentary procedure dictates that the Ethics Committee cannot entertain complaints based strictly on media stories or examine any matters that are currently sub judice in a court of law.

Question 25

Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam':
1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. * Statement 1 is incorrect: The Act dictates that the 33% women's reservation will only come into effect after a fresh delimitation exercise is conducted based on the figures of the first population census taken after the commencement of the Act (it will not apply to the 18th Lok Sabha). * Statement 2 is correct: The reservation policy is statutory and will remain in force for a fixed duration of 15 years from its date of commencement, unless extended further by a law made by Parliament. * Statement 3 is correct: The Act explicitly provides for internal sub-reservation quotas for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) women within the seats already reserved for SCs and STs.

Question 26

Consider the following statements:
1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Accepted Answer

1 only. * Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 342(1) of the Constitution, it is the President of India who holds the sole authority to formally notify and specify a community as a Scheduled Tribe in relation to a State or Union Territory, after consultation with the Governor of that state. Any subsequent inclusions or exclusions must be enacted through a law passed by the Parliament under Article 342(2). * Statement 2 is correct: The notification list of Scheduled Tribes is entirely state-specific. Therefore, a community notified as a Scheduled Tribe within one particular state does not automatically hold that status or receive privileges in another state or UT.

Question 27

With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:
1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Accepted Answer

1 only. * Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 112 of the Constitution provides that the Annual Financial Statement (Union Budget) is laid before both Houses of Parliament by the authority and cause of the President of India, not on behalf of the Prime Minister. The Union Finance Minister presents it on behalf of the President. * Statement 2 is correct: Article 113(3) explicitly dictates that no demand for a grant can be presented or made in the Lok Sabha except on the recommendation and prior approval of the President of India.

Question 28

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. * Statement 1 is correct: In accordance with the constitutional mandate under Article 96, when a resolution seeking the removal of the Speaker is under active consideration, they cannot preside over the sitting of the House, although they may be physically present. * Statement 2 is incorrect: The Speaker retains a full statutory right to speak, participate in, and defend themselves during the proceedings of the House while such a resolution is being discussed. * Statement 3 is incorrect: The Speaker is explicitly entitled to vote on the removal resolution in the first instance, though they do not hold a second casting vote in the event of an equality of votes.

Question 29

With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. * Statement 1 is correct: Any bill that is currently pending on the agenda of the Lok Sabha lapses automatically upon the dissolution of the House, regardless of whether it originated there or was transmitted from the Rajya Sabha. * Statement 2 is correct: A bill that has been successfully passed by the Lok Sabha but remains pending consideration within the Rajya Sabha at the time of dissolution will lapse. * Statement 3 is incorrect: If the President of India has formally notified an intention to summon a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve a legislative deadlock prior to the official dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the bill does not lapse.

Question 30

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2. * Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 85(2), the President's executive authority to prorogue either House of Parliament is not discretionary and must be exercised strictly on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. * Statement 2 is correct: Prorogation (terminating a session) typically follows an adjournment sine die called by the Presiding Officer, but there is no constitutional barrier preventing the President from issuing an order to prorogue a House while it is actively in session. * Statement 3 is correct: The dissolution of the Lok Sabha is executed by the President, who, except in extraordinary scenarios where a government loses its majority, acts on the formal recommendation and advice of the Council of Ministers.

Question 31

With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:
1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. * Statement 1 is correct: The Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP) was restructured into a Central Sector Scheme with 100% central funding from the Government of India. * Statement 2 is correct: Core structural workflows of the program mandate the digital mapping and computerization of regional land records, including the digitization of Cadastral Maps. * Statement 3 is correct: To eliminate localized linguistic barriers in land governance, an initiative was launched alongside C-DAC to transliterate regional Records of Rights into any of the 22 languages recognized under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.

Question 32

With reference to the 'Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan', consider the following statements:
1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. * Statement 1 is incorrect: The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) guarantees a minimum package of quality antenatal care services specifically on the 9th day of every month to ensure pregnant women receive at least one checkup during their second or third trimester. It does not extend this specific guaranteed package to six months post-delivery. * Statement 2 is correct: The framework actively encourages private sector healthcare specialists, such as OBGYN experts, radiologists, and physicians, to volunteer their services at public health facilities where government practitioners are inadequate or unavailable.

Indian Polity: Multi-statement (Traditional Style) PYQ.

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