Question 1

Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

Accepted Answer

T.T. Krishnamachari. * (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha is correct: During the inaugural assembly meeting on December 9, 1946, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was elected as the temporary/provisional President of the Constituent Assembly because he was the oldest member present, following historical French parliamentary convention. Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was formally elected as the permanent President of the assembly.

Question 2

With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. * Statement 1 is correct: The 1935 Act proposed creating a comprehensive "Federation of India" that treated British Indian provinces and princely states as administrative units (though it never materialised due to lack of states' consent). * Statement 2 is incorrect: The Act introduced dyarchy at the Center, under which sensitive key departments—including Defence, External Affairs, Ecclesiastical Affairs, and Tribal Areas—were classified as reserved subjects placed directly under the control of the Governor-General, not the federal legislature.

Question 3

As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. * Article 368(1) explicitly establishes that the Parliament may, in the exercise of its constituent power, amend any provision of the Constitution by way of addition, variation, or repeal in accordance with the prescribed legal procedure. Hence, all three methods are correct.

Question 4

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

Accepted Answer

2 and 3 only. * Statement 1 is correct: Article 109 of the Constitution outlines the special legal procedure for passing Money Bills, granting overriding authority to the Lok Sabha. * Statement 2 is correct: A Money Bill cannot originate or be introduced inside the Council of States (Rajya Sabha); it can only start in the Lok Sabha. * Statement 3 is correct: The Rajya Sabha must return the bill within 14 days; it can provide non-binding recommendations or changes, but lacks the power to reject it. * Statement 4 is incorrect: The Lok Sabha holds full discretion to either accept or completely reject any of the structural modifications suggested by the Rajya Sabha. If the Lok Sabha rejects the amendments, the bill is deemed passed by both Houses in its original form.

Question 5

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3 only. * Following the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002, the council serves as a regional planning body for eight states (Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and Mizoram). * Its statutory membership explicitly comprises the Governors of these constituent states, the Chief Ministers of these states, and three distinct members formally nominated by the President of India. The Home Minister is not a structural member added under this clause, making option (a) correct.

Question 6

How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

Accepted Answer

Three. * Delimitation is the process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or a province having a legislative body. * In India, such Delimitation Commissions have been constituted 4 times: in 1952 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952; in 1963 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1962; in 1973 under the Delimitation Act, 1972; and in 2002 under the Delimitation Act, 2002. * Delimitation Commission orders have the force of law and cannot be called into question before any court.

Question 7

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili

Accepted Answer

1 and 4. * The 71st Amendment, enacted in 1992, included three more languages, i.e. Konkani, Meitei (Manipuri) and Nepali. The 92nd Amendment, added Bodo, Dogri Santhali and Maithali in 2003, raising the total number of languages to 22. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Question 8

Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. * Statement 1 is correct: Part IX-A of the Indian Constitution deals with Municipalities (Articles 243-P to 243-ZG) and was added by the 74th Amendment Act of 1992. * Statement 2 is correct: Part XVIII of the Indian Constitution outlines the Emergency Provisions (Articles 352 to 360), including National, State, and Financial emergencies. * Statement 3 is correct: The legal procedure for amending the constitution is explicitly laid down in Part XX (Article 368).

Question 9

Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

Accepted Answer

Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.. * Option (a) is incorrect: Inter-State trade and commerce is explicitly enumerated in the Union List (List I) of the Seventh Schedule. * Option (b) is incorrect: Entry 81 of the Union List covers Inter-State migration. * Option (c) is correct: Entry 81 of the Union List handles Inter-State migration and inter-State quarantine. * Option (d) is incorrect: Corporation Tax is designated under Entry 85 of the Union List, making it a Union subject rather than a State subject.

Question 10

Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

Accepted Answer

Article 19. * (d) Article 21 is correct: In the landmark case of Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs. Union of India, a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India unanimously declared that the Right to Privacy is protected as an essential fundamental right under Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty). In doing so, it explicitly overruled older historic verdicts from the M.P. Sharma (1958) and Kharak Singh (1961) cases.

Question 11

Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Accepted Answer

2 and 3. * Statement 1 is correct: The late Speaker G.M.C. Balayogi initially constituted an ad hoc Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha in the year 2000, and it eventually became a permanent standing committee of the House in 2015. * Statement 2 is incorrect: Any citizen or person can lodge a formal complaint against a Lok Sabha MP through another Lok Sabha member, provided they submit supporting evidence and an affidavit declaring the filing is not frivolous. MPs can also directly submit complaints, in which case an affidavit is waived. * Statement 3 is correct: Parliamentary procedure dictates that the Ethics Committee cannot entertain complaints based strictly on media stories or examine any matters that are currently sub judice in a court of law.

Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam':
1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. * Statement 1 is incorrect: The Act dictates that the 33% women's reservation will only come into effect after a fresh delimitation exercise is conducted based on the figures of the first population census taken after the commencement of the Act (it will not apply to the 18th Lok Sabha). * Statement 2 is correct: The reservation policy is statutory and will remain in force for a fixed duration of 15 years from its date of commencement, unless extended further by a law made by Parliament. * Statement 3 is correct: The Act explicitly provides for internal sub-reservation quotas for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) women within the seats already reserved for SCs and STs.

Question 13

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

Accepted Answer

the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.. * (c) is correct: The Writ of Prohibition is a judicial order issued by a superior court (Supreme Court or High Courts) directed to lower courts, tribunals, or quasi-judicial bodies to halt or prohibit them from continuing proceedings that exceed their judicial authority or jurisdiction. It mandates judicial inactivity (unlike mandamus which commands action) and cannot be issued against administrative officials, private individuals, or legislative bodies.

Question 14

Consider the following statements:
1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Accepted Answer

1 only. * Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 342(1) of the Constitution, it is the President of India who holds the sole authority to formally notify and specify a community as a Scheduled Tribe in relation to a State or Union Territory, after consultation with the Governor of that state. Any subsequent inclusions or exclusions must be enacted through a law passed by the Parliament under Article 342(2). * Statement 2 is correct: The notification list of Scheduled Tribes is entirely state-specific. Therefore, a community notified as a Scheduled Tribe within one particular state does not automatically hold that status or receive privileges in another state or UT.

Question 15

With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:
1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Accepted Answer

1 only. * Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 112 of the Constitution provides that the Annual Financial Statement (Union Budget) is laid before both Houses of Parliament by the authority and cause of the President of India, not on behalf of the Prime Minister. The Union Finance Minister presents it on behalf of the President. * Statement 2 is correct: Article 113(3) explicitly dictates that no demand for a grant can be presented or made in the Lok Sabha except on the recommendation and prior approval of the President of India.

Question 16

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. * Statement 1 is correct: In accordance with the constitutional mandate under Article 96, when a resolution seeking the removal of the Speaker is under active consideration, they cannot preside over the sitting of the House, although they may be physically present. * Statement 2 is incorrect: The Speaker retains a full statutory right to speak, participate in, and defend themselves during the proceedings of the House while such a resolution is being discussed. * Statement 3 is incorrect: The Speaker is explicitly entitled to vote on the removal resolution in the first instance, though they do not hold a second casting vote in the event of an equality of votes.

Question 17

With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. * Statement 1 is correct: Any bill that is currently pending on the agenda of the Lok Sabha lapses automatically upon the dissolution of the House, regardless of whether it originated there or was transmitted from the Rajya Sabha. * Statement 2 is correct: A bill that has been successfully passed by the Lok Sabha but remains pending consideration within the Rajya Sabha at the time of dissolution will lapse. * Statement 3 is incorrect: If the President of India has formally notified an intention to summon a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve a legislative deadlock prior to the official dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the bill does not lapse.

Question 18

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2. * Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 85(2), the President's executive authority to prorogue either House of Parliament is not discretionary and must be exercised strictly on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. * Statement 2 is correct: Prorogation (terminating a session) typically follows an adjournment sine die called by the Presiding Officer, but there is no constitutional barrier preventing the President from issuing an order to prorogue a House while it is actively in session. * Statement 3 is correct: The dissolution of the Lok Sabha is executed by the President, who, except in extraordinary scenarios where a government loses its majority, acts on the formal recommendation and advice of the Council of Ministers.

Question 19

With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:
1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. * Statement 1 is correct: The Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP) was restructured into a Central Sector Scheme with 100% central funding from the Government of India. * Statement 2 is correct: Core structural workflows of the program mandate the digital mapping and computerization of regional land records, including the digitization of Cadastral Maps. * Statement 3 is correct: To eliminate localized linguistic barriers in land governance, an initiative was launched alongside C-DAC to transliterate regional Records of Rights into any of the 22 languages recognized under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.

Question 20

With reference to the 'Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan', consider the following statements:
1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. * Statement 1 is incorrect: The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) guarantees a minimum package of quality antenatal care services specifically on the 9th day of every month to ensure pregnant women receive at least one checkup during their second or third trimester. It does not extend this specific guaranteed package to six months post-delivery. * Statement 2 is correct: The framework actively encourages private sector healthcare specialists, such as OBGYN experts, radiologists, and physicians, to volunteer their services at public health facilities where government practitioners are inadequate or unavailable.

Indian Polity: 2024 PYQ.

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