Question 1

Consider the following statements:
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

Accepted Answer

I and III only. * Statement I is not correct: Article 243B of the Constitution of India provides for a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj, but states with a population not exceeding twenty lakhs (2 million) are not obligated to establish Panchayats at the intermediate level. * Statement II is not correct: As per Article 243F(1)(a) of the Constitution, the minimum age to be chosen as a member of a Panchayat is twenty-one years, not thirty years. * Statement III is not correct: Article 243-I mandates the Governor of a State—not the Chief Minister—to constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats.

Question 2

Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

III only. * Statement I is not correct: The Lokpal's jurisdiction applies to public servants serving the Union Government both within India and abroad, as well as officers of organizations receiving substantial foreign or domestic contributions. * Statement II is not correct: While MPs and State Legislators are barred from membership, the Chairperson position is not limited to a former Chief Justice of India; it can also be filled by a former Supreme Court Judge or an eminent person with at least 25 years of specialized experience. * Statement III is correct: Under Section 3(3)(c) of the Act, a person must be at least 45 years old on the date of assuming office to be appointed as Chairperson or a Member. * Statement IV is not correct: The Lokpal is explicitly empowered to inquire into allegations against a sitting Prime Minister, subject to specific operational safeguards and exceptions such as national security or international relations.

Question 3

Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

I only. * Statement I is correct: Per Supreme Court rulings like Epuru Sudhakar (2006), the President's executive pardoning power under Article 72 is subject to limited judicial review if the choice is shown to be arbitrary, mala fide, or irrational. * Statement II is not correct: Under Article 74(1), the President is constitutionally required to act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. The pardoning power is processed through recommendations from the Ministry of Home Affairs and is not a discretionary power.

Question 4

Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

II and III only. * Statement I is correct: In accordance with Article 94 of the Constitution, upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the Speaker does not vacate their office until just before the first meeting of the newly constituted House. * Statement II is not correct: The Constitution carries no mandatory requirement for a member to resign from their political party upon being elected Speaker. (The Tenth Schedule merely exempts them from defection disqualification if they choose to do so). * Statement III is correct: Article 94(c) dictates that the Speaker may be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the House (effective majority), provided at least 14 days' prior notice has been given.

Question 5

Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Both I and II. * Statement I is not correct: Under Paragraph 6(1) of the Tenth Schedule, the authority to decide on defection disqualification cases rests with the Presiding Officer (Speaker/Chairman) of the House, not the President. * Statement II is not correct: While the original 1950 Constitution did not mention it, the term "political party" was explicitly introduced into the constitutional text by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 through the insertion of the Tenth Schedule.

Question 6

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct. * Statement I is not correct: Under Section 15(1) of the MMDR Act, 1957, State Governments are fully empowered to frame rules and collect revenue/concessions regarding minor mineral extraction within their territories. * Statement II is correct: Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act, 1957 explicitly grants the Central Government the statutory power to notify any mineral as a "minor mineral" via official notification. Thus, option (d) is correct.

Question 7

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Accepted Answer

II and III only. * Statement I is correct: An Ordinance promulgated under Article 123 (by the President) or Article 213 (by the Governor) possesses identical force, legal status, and effects as a standard legislative Act. Within limits of legislative competence, it is fully capable of amending or repealing existing Central or State Acts. * Statement II is incorrect: Ordinances are recognized as "law" under the framework of Article 13. Article 13(2) prohibits the state from enacting any law that abridges or overrides the Fundamental Rights listed in Part III; hence, an Ordinance cannot violate or abridge them. * Statement III is correct: Since an Ordinance is co-extensive with standard legislative powers, it can be issued to take effect retrospectively from a back date, with the sole exception that Article 20(1) bars retrospective penalties in criminal law.

Question 8

Consider the following pairs:
State : Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only one. * Pair I is correctly matched: Arunachal Pradesh's capital, Itanagar, is named after the historical Ita Fort (meaning "Fort of bricks"). Additionally, the state contains exactly two national parks: Namdapha National Park and Mouling National Park. * Pair II is incorrectly matched: The state of Nagaland was formally created by an Act of Parliament, the State of Nagaland Act, 1962, rather than a Constitutional Amendment Act. (The 13th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962 was simultaneously enacted to insert Article 371A to provide special autonomous safeguards, but did not create the state itself). * Pair III is correctly matched: After acceding to India in 1949, Tripura was initially designated as a Part 'C' State. Under the States Reorganisation Act of November 1956, it was turned into a centrally administered Union Territory before eventually attaining full statehood in 1972. * Therefore, exactly two pairs are correct.

Question 9

With reference to India, consider the following:
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

Accepted Answer

Only one. * Item I is a constitutional body: The Inter-State Council is established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India to enable structured administrative coordination and dialogue between the states and the center. * Item II is an executive body: The National Security Council (NSC) was created via a non-constitutional executive order of the Government of India and functions as an advisory body. * Item III represents statutory bodies: Zonal Councils were set up via an Act of Parliament, the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, rather than by constitutional provisions. * Therefore, only one organization is established by the provisions of the Constitution.

Question 10

Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Accepted Answer

I only. * Statement I is correct: Unlike the President's framework, Article 163(1) of the Constitution explicitly states that there will be a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor, except in matters where the Constitution requires the Governor to act at their own discretion. Article 163(2) confirms that the Governor's decision on what falls under their discretion is final. * Statement II is incorrect: Under Article 200, only the Governor of the state holds the constitutional authority to reserve a State Legislative Bill and forward it for the consideration of the President. The President cannot independently or suo motu take up a state bill without it being forwarded by the Governor.

Question 11

Consider the following pairs:
Provision in the Constitution of India : Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights

Accepted Answer

Only two. * Pair I is correctly matched: Article 50, contained within Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy), explicitly directs that the State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive branch in public services. * Pair II is correctly matched: Article 51A, located in Part IVA (Fundamental Duties), states under Clause (f) that it is the duty of every citizen to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. * Pair III is correctly matched: Article 24, listed under Part III (Fundamental Rights), strictly prohibits the employment of children below the age of fourteen years in any factory, mine, or hazardous work environment.

Question 12

Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule:
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor

Accepted Answer

Both I and II. * Statement I is incorrect: Paragraph 2 of the Fifth Schedule explicitly states that the executive power of a State extends to its Scheduled Areas. While special legislative authority is vested in the Governor and local governance is enhanced via PESA, the State Government does not cede its executive powers, nor does a local body assume absolute total administration. * Statement II is incorrect: Paragraph 3 of the Fifth Schedule permits the Union Government to issue binding administrative directives to the State regarding Scheduled Areas, but it contains no provision allowing the Center to take over total local administration. (A complete takeover of state administration requires the invocation of Article 356, which is an independent constitutional mechanism).

Question 13

With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
Organization : Union Ministry
I. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries
II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
III. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Accepted Answer

All the three. * Pair I is incorrectly matched: The National Automotive Board (NAB) was set up to steer growth in the automobile sector and operates under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. * Pair II is incorrectly matched: The Coir Board is a statutory organization established to promote coir products and functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), not the Ministry of Heavy Industries. * Pair III is incorrectly matched: The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) is an autonomous database institution operating under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of MSME. * Therefore, zero pairs are correctly matched.

Question 14

Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor's office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

Accepted Answer

I and II only. * Subject I requires ratification: Under the proviso to Article 368(2), any amendment that alters or modifies "any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule" explicitly requires ratification by at least half of the state legislatures, since it shifts the federal balance of power. * Subject II requires ratification: The proviso to Article 368(2) explicitly protects Articles 73 and 162, which dictate the extent of the executive powers of the Union and the States respectively. * Subject III does not require ratification: Amendments concerning the conditions of the Governor's office (Article 158) do not alter the core federal architecture listed under Article 368(2) and can be carried out by Parliament through a special majority alone. * Therefore, state ratification is required for subjects I and II only.

Question 15

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

Accepted Answer

I and III only. * Statement I is correct: Article 361(1) of the Constitution grants personal legal immunity to the Governor of a State, ensuring they are not answerable to any court for official actions or the performance of their constitutional duties. * Statement II is correct: Article 361(2) dictates that no criminal proceedings whatsoever can be instituted, processed, or continued against the Governor in any court during their official tenure of office. * Statement III is correct: Article 194(2) protects the freedom of speech of lawmakers within the legislature, ensuring that members of a State Legislature face no liability or judicial proceedings in court for anything said or voted during sessions.

Indian Polity: 2025 PYQ.

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