⚖️ Indian Polity12 PYQs

Indian Polity: 2026 PYQ.

UPSC Prelims Indian Polity previous year questions from 2026, with answers and explanations.

12 questions · sorted by year
2026Case-Study / Applied ScenarioPublic Administration & Ethics

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare. Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?

A.Esprit de corps
B.Equity
C.Accountability
D.Delegation
Explanation: * (c) Accountability is correct: Mr. X's firm decision to expose corruption to the vigilance authority and cancel the compromised contract demonstrates accountability. * Accountability dictates that public administrators must remain answerable for their actions, choices, and ethical results, prioritizing public welfare and safety over vested political or outside pressures. * Other choices are incorrect: Esprit de corps is organizational team unity, equity is impartial treatment, and delegation is passing authority to lower ranks.
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📌 Lokpal, Lokayuktas & NIARelevance 85%
2026Case-Study / Applied ScenarioPublic Administration & Ethics

In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health. Consider the following statements with reference to the above: 1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives. 2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group. 3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform - including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives - to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions. 4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making. Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

A.1, 3 and 4 only
B.2, 3 and 4 only
C.1 and 2 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: * Statement 1 is correct: Conflict resolution in delicate ethnic disputes must start by acknowledging the cultural, emotional, and ancestral land concerns of the tribal group to lay a foundation of trust. * Statement 2 is incorrect: Pushing the project forward while disregarding tribal claims as a "small group" violates natural justice, participatory governance, and specific tribal protection acts (FRA 2006, PESA 1996). It will deepen rather than resolve the crisis. * Statement 3 is correct: Setting up an inclusive multi-stakeholder platform helps build common understanding and lowers active public friction. * Statement 4 is correct: Executing an independent, transparent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) helps use neutral facts to guide a balanced solution.
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📌 Lokpal, Lokayuktas & NIARelevance 65%
2026Case-Study / Applied ScenarioPublic Administration & Ethics

Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project - a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city's reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust. What amongst the following should Ms. X do now? 1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public 2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity 3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being

A.1 and 2 only
B.3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Explanation: * Statement 1 is inappropriate: Publicly disclosing unverified and unproven rumors breaks the principles of natural justice and leaves the department open to defamation or legal liability. * Statement 2 is inappropriate: Unilaterally blacklisting or removing a contractor based on unverified allegations bypasses due administrative process. * Statement 3 is correct: Making a limited disclosure to an internal oversight or vigilance committee ensures that relevant background checks can occur legally. This choice maintains procedural fairness, protects necessary confidentiality until facts are proven, and honors Ms. X's ethical duty of integrity without yielding to political suppression.
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📌 National IntegrationRelevance 95%
2026Direct Conceptual / Factual MCQFundamental Rights & Liberties

'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. Y pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

A.'X' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
B.The view of Y that 'law' included custom is not correct.
C.The views of both 'X' and 'Y' are correct.
D.The view of only 'Y' is correct.
Explanation: * Only Y's view is correct: Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution defines "law" broadly and explicitly, stating that it includes ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications, and custom or usage having the force of law within India's territory. * X's understanding is legally incomplete because it ignores custom, which is explicitly written into the constitutional text and confirmed by landmark judicial rulings like Sant Ram v. Labh Singh.
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📌 Fundamental RightsRelevance 95%
2026Multi-statement (Traditional Style)Historical Evolution & Pre-1947 Acts

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India: 1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'. 2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed. 3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

A.All three statements are correct.
B.There is no correct statement.
C.There are two correct statements that include statement 3.
D.There is only one correct statement.
Explanation: * All three statements are incorrect: * Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 393 explicitly states: "This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India." * Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 395 explicitly details the repeal of the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935. * Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 394 explicitly states that the remaining parts of the Constitution shall come into effect on 26th January, 1950 (the date of commencement). * Because all three given statements are false, conclusion (b) is correct.
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📌 Making of the ConstitutionRelevance 95%
2026Multi-statement (Traditional Style)Welfare Schemes & Central Schemes

Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct? 1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination. 2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains - built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology. 3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

A.1 and 2
B.2 only
C.1 and 3
D.1 only
Explanation: * Statement 1 is incorrect: The Parliament passed the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act in 2016, not 2018 (though its clauses regarding 4% job and 5% higher education reservation are correct, the wrong year invalidates it). * Statement 2 is correct: Launched in 2015, the Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) targets achieving universal accessibility across three key areas: built environment, public transport systems, and information/ICT networks. * Statement 3 is incorrect: The NDFDC operates under the administrative wing of the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment), not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
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📌 Special Provisions Relating to Certain ClassesRelevance 40%
2026Multi-statement (Traditional Style)Parliament & Legislative Dynamics

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India: 1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. 2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha. 3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee. 4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

A.There are four correct statements.
B.There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
C.There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
D.There is no correct statement.
Explanation: * All four statements are false: * Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chairperson of the committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from among its Lok Sabha members. * Statement 2 is incorrect: It reverses the ratio; it consists of 20 Lok Sabha members and 10 Rajya Sabha members. * Statement 3 is incorrect: No Minister can serve on the committee; there are no exceptions for any ministry. * Statement 4 is incorrect: Committee members are elected for a term of one year, not two years. * Since all four statements are incorrect, conclusion (d) applies.
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📌 Judicial ActivismRelevance 95%
2026Multi-statement (Traditional Style)Judiciary & Constitutional Law

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India: 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House. 2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer. 3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

A.All the three statements are correct.
B.There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
C.There is only one correct statement.
D.There is no correct statement.
Explanation: * Statement 1 is incorrect: Unstarred questions require a written reply laid on the Table of the House; no oral answer is delivered. * Statement 2 is incorrect: Starred questions are those for which a Member wants an oral answer on the floor of the chamber. * Statement 3 is correct: Because unstarred questions receive written answers rather than floor time, no follow-up supplementary questions are permitted. * Since only Statement 3 is correct, conclusion (c) is the right answer.
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📌 Parliamentary SystemRelevance 40%
2026Multi-statement (Traditional Style)Local Government & Scheduled Areas

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India: 1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes. 3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

A.There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
B.There is only one correct statement.
C.There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
D.All three statements are correct.
Explanation: * Statement 1 is incorrect: The administration of tribal enclaves in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram is regulated under the Sixth Schedule. The Fifth Schedule applies to Scheduled Areas and Tribes in other states. * Statement 2 is correct: Under Section 10(26) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, members of Scheduled Tribes living in specific North-Eastern regions (and Ladakh) are exempt from income tax on income earned within those areas. * Statement 3 is correct: Article 243D mandates the reservation of seats in local Panchayats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, including specific proportional allocations for women belonging to those communities. * Since Statements 2 and 3 are correct, conclusion (a) applies.
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📌 Scheduled and Tribal AreasRelevance 90%
2026Multi-statement (Traditional Style)Constitutional & Statutory Bodies

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct? 1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station. 2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry. 3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically. Select the answer using the code given below:

A.1, 2 and 3
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 only
D.2 only
Explanation: * Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Section 173 of the BNSS, 2023, a Zero FIR can be filed at any police station regardless of jurisdiction, but only for cognizable offences. Non-cognizable offenses are dealt with separately under Section 174. * Statement 2 is correct: A preliminary enquiry is permitted under Section 173(3) only for specific cognizable offenses carrying a sentence of 3 to 7 years, requiring the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of DSP. * Statement 3 is incorrect: While the BNSS permits a citizen to submit crime data electronically, doing so is voluntary and not mandatory. If sent electronically, it must be signed by the informant within three days.
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📌 Scheduled and Tribal Areas0
2026Multi-statement (How Many Style)Constitutional & Statutory Bodies

With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details: 1. Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs 2. Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance 3. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Public Grievances, Personnel and Pension In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?

A.1
B.2
C.3
Explanation: * Row 1 is incorrectly matched: While its database-sharing and law enforcement coordination function is broadly correct, the CEIB operates under the Department of Revenue within the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. * Row 2 is incorrectly matched: The SFIO is responsible for investigating complex corporate frauds, but it operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), not the Ministry of Finance. * Row 3 is incorrectly matched: While the ministry is correct, the specific functional quote provided in the row text is considered incorrect or mismatched under the official framework. * Since none of the rows are completely matched correctly, the answer is (d).
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📌 Central Bureau of InvestigationRelevance 95%
2026Current AffairsMulti-statement (Traditional Style)Welfare Schemes & Central Schemes

Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct? 1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026. 2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals. 3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories. Select the answer using the code given below:

A.1 and 2
B.2 only
C.1 and 3
D.2 and 3
Explanation: * Statement 1 is incorrect: The Revamped RGSA was approved for implementation from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026, aligning precisely with the 15th Finance Commission cycle (not starting in 2021). * Statement 2 is correct: The primary goal of the program is to strengthen the institutional governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to help deliver on the global Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) via localized planning. * Statement 3 is incorrect: Funding is not 100% centralized across all states. The cost-sharing ratio is split 60:40 for most states, 90:10 for North-Eastern/Himalayan states, and 100% strictly for Union Territories without local legislatures.
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📌 Panchayati RajRelevance 40%
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