Question 1

Consider the following rows regarding the classification of natural disasters:
Row 1: Drought - Terrestrial
Row 2: Avalanches - Terrestrial
Row 3: Storm Surge - Aquatic
In how many of the above rows is the disaster correctly matched with its classification category?

Accepted Answer

Only two rows. Row 1 is incorrect. The provided classification table lists Drought as an Atmospheric disaster, not a Terrestrial one. Row 2 is correct. The table classifies Avalanches under the Terrestrial category. Row 3 is correct. The table classifies Storm Surge under the Aquatic category. Therefore, only two rows (Row 2 and Row 3) are correctly matched.

Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding natural phenomena and disasters:
1. From the perspective of nature, changes such as earthquakes and floods are considered value-loaded and undesirable.
2. A 'disaster' is defined as an event resulting from forces largely within human control, which can be predicted with significant warning.
3. Changes in the environment can be categorized by their speed, with phenomena like the evolution of landforms being gradual, while events like tsunamis are sudden and swift.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. Changes in nature are considered value-neutral from a natural perspective; it is the human perspective that assigns value, categorizing events as desirable or undesirable. Statement 2 is incorrect. The definition of a disaster involves forces that are largely outside human control and events that strike with little or no warning. The statement incorrectly reverses both of these core characteristics. Statement 3 is correct. Environmental changes occur on different timescales. The evolution of landforms is a gradual, slow process, whereas seismic events like tsunamis are characterized by their sudden and swift occurrence. Therefore, only one statement is correct.

Question 3

Consider the following rows regarding environmental changes:
Row 1: Type of Change - Gradual | Example - Tsunami
Row 2: Scale of Change - Global | Example - Hailstorm
Row 3: Perspective - Human | Attribute - Value-neutral
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

None of the rows. Row 1 is incorrectly matched. A tsunami is an example of a sudden and swift change, not a gradual one. The evolution of landforms is an example of a gradual process. Row 2 is incorrectly matched. A hailstorm is a localized event, confined to a smaller area. Global warming is an example of a change with global dimensions. Row 3 is incorrectly matched. The human perspective on change is value-loaded (considering events as good or bad), whereas the perspective of nature is value-neutral. Since no row is correctly matched, the correct option is 'None of the rows'.

Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding Earthquake Hazard Zones in India:
1. The National Capital Territory of Delhi is classified under the Very High Damage Risk Zone (MSK IX).
2. The Andaman & Nicobar Islands are in the Very High Damage Risk Zone (MSK IX), while the Lakshadweep Islands are in the Low Damage Risk Zone (MSK VI).
3. The Rann of Kutch in Gujarat represents a distinct, isolated pocket of Very High Damage Risk (MSK IX) on the western side of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Capital Territory of Delhi is classified under the High Damage Risk Zone (MSK VIII), not the Very High Damage Risk Zone (MSK IX). Statement 2 is incorrect. The Andaman & Nicobar Islands are in the Very High Damage Risk Zone (MSK IX), but the Lakshadweep Islands fall under the Moderate Damage Risk Zone (MSK VII), not the Low Damage Risk Zone (MSK VI). Statement 3 is correct. The Rann of Kutch in Gujarat is indeed an isolated pocket classified under the Very High Damage Risk Zone (MSK IX) on India's western coast. Therefore, only one of the statements is correct.

Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding the causes and characteristics of earthquakes:
1. The Indian plate is moving at a speed of approximately one centimetre per year.
2. The primary direction of the Indian plate's movement is towards the south and southwest.
3. Earthquakes resulting from volcanic eruptions and landslides typically have a more extensive area of influence than tectonic earthquakes.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is correct. The movement speed of the Indian plate is specified as one centimetre per year. Statement 2 is incorrect. The movement is towards the north and northeastern direction, not south and southwest; this is a spatial direction swap trap. Statement 3 is incorrect. Tectonic earthquakes are the most devastating and have a large area of influence, while those from volcanic eruptions, rock falls, and landslides have a limited area of influence and damage; this statement reverses the scale of impact.

Question 6

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Himalayan region and parts of northeastern India are highly susceptible to tectonic earthquakes.
Statement II: The northward movement of the Indian plate is constantly obstructed by the Eurasian plate, resulting in the accumulation and periodic release of tectonic stress.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above two statements?

Accepted Answer

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.. Statement I is a well-established geographical fact, consistent with the context of plate collision. Statement II accurately describes the underlying tectonic mechanism responsible for this seismic activity. The obstruction of the northward-moving Indian plate by the Eurasian plate is the direct cause of the stress accumulation that leads to earthquakes in the Himalayas and northeastern India. Therefore, Statement II provides the correct and direct causal explanation for the phenomenon described in Statement I.

Question 7

Consider the following rows matching Earthquake Hazard Zones with their corresponding regions in India:
Row 1: Very High Damage Risk Zone (MSK IX) - Entire Northeast, Kashmir Valley, and Delhi.
Row 2: High Damage Risk Zone (MSK VIII) - Western Uttar Pradesh, Northern Bihar, and the remaining parts of Jammu & Kashmir.
Row 3: Very Low Damage Risk Zone (MSK V) - Stable parts of the Peninsular plateau, including western Madhya Pradesh and the Karnataka Plateau.
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only one row. Row 1 is incorrectly matched. Delhi is in the High Damage Risk Zone (MSK VIII), not the Very High Damage Risk Zone (MSK IX). Row 2 is incorrectly matched. Northern Bihar is explicitly mentioned as being in the Very High Damage Risk Zone (MSK IX), not the High Damage Risk Zone. Row 3 is correctly matched. The text states that the most stable landmass is the Deccan plateau, and the map notes for the Very Low Damage Risk Zone (MSK V) specify it covers parts of western MP and the Karnataka Plateau. Therefore, only one row is correctly matched.

Question 8

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Indian plate's northward movement is obstructed by the Eurasian plate, leading to energy accumulation and earthquakes along the Himalayan arch.
Statement II: The occurrence of severe earthquakes in the stable Peninsular block, like in Latur (Maharashtra), is explained by the emergence of a fault line along the river Bhima and the possible breaking down of the Indian plate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 2. Statement I is correct. The northward drift of the Indian tectonic plate is obstructed by the Eurasian plate. This ongoing collision leads to the accumulation of tectonic stress and energy, which is released in the form of earthquakes, making the Himalayan region seismically active. Statement II is also correct. While the Peninsular block is generally considered stable, the Latur earthquake (1993) challenged this view. A prominent geological theory explains this intra-plate earthquake by identifying an emergent fault line along the Bhima river. This suggests energy build-up and release along this specific lineament, potentially indicating a process of the Indian plate breaking down internally. Since both statements present accurate causal factors for seismic activity in their respective regions, both are correct.

Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding earthquakes and disaster management:
1. Earthquakes associated with volcanic eruptions and landslides typically have a larger area of influence than tectonic earthquakes.
2. The Indian plate is moving at a speed of one centimetre per year towards the north and northeastern direction.
3. The Yokohama Strategy for a Safer World was formalized in 1994, following an initiative raised at the U.N. General Assembly in 1989.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect. This statement reverses the scale of impact. Tectonic earthquakes are the most devastating and have a large area of influence, whereas those from volcanic eruptions, rock falls, and landslides have a limited area of influence. Statement 2 is correct. The Indian plate's movement is specified as one centimetre per year towards the north and northeastern direction, where it is obstructed by the Eurasian plate. Statement 3 is correct. The issue of global cooperation on disaster management was raised at the U.N. General Assembly in 1989, which was subsequently formalized at the World Conference on Disaster Management in May 1994 at Yokohama, Japan, as the Yokohama Strategy. Therefore, only two statements (2 and 3) are correct.

Question 10

With reference to India's earthquake hazard zonation, consider the following states/UTs:
1. Bihar
2. Gujarat
3. West Bengal
4. Ladakh
How many of the above contain areas designated under the 'Very High Damage Risk Zone (MSK IX)'?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct: Areas in North Bihar, particularly north of Darbhanga and Araria along the Indo-Nepal border, are classified under the Very High Damage Risk Zone (Zone V or MSK IX). Statement 2 is correct: The Kuchchh region in Gujarat is one of the most seismically active areas and falls under the Very High Damage Risk Zone. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Darjeeling subdivision of West Bengal is in the High Damage Risk Zone (MSK VIII), not the Very High Damage Risk Zone (MSK IX). Statement 4 is incorrect: The Union Territory of Ladakh is classified under the High Damage Risk Zone (MSK VIII), not the Very High zone. Therefore, only two of the listed entities contain areas under the MSK IX zone.

Question 11

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Himalayan region and parts of northern India are highly susceptible to major tectonic earthquakes.
Statement II: The Indian plate is moving at approximately one centimetre per year towards the north and northeast, where its movement is obstructed by the Eurasian plate, leading to the accumulation of tectonic stress.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.. Statement I is correct. The collision zone between the Indian and Eurasian plates makes the Himalayan region one of the most seismically active zones in the world. Statement II is also correct. The Indian plate moves at a speed of one centimetre per year in a north and northeastern direction and is obstructed by the Eurasian plate, causing energy accumulation. Statement II provides the precise tectonic mechanism (plate movement, obstruction, and stress accumulation) that causes the high seismic susceptibility mentioned in Statement I. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Question 12

With reference to the Yokohama Strategy adopted at the World Conference on Natural Disaster Reduction in 1994, consider the following resolutions. How many of the statements below are correct?
1. It established that each country has the sovereign responsibility to protect its citizens from disasters.
2. It prioritized assistance for all developing countries equally, without special focus on any sub-group.
3. It advocated for the mobilisation of non-governmental organisations and the participation of local communities in disaster preparedness.
4. It promoted international cooperation with an emphasis on technology sharing and mobilisation of resources.

Accepted Answer

Only three. Statement 1 is correct as the resolution explicitly mentions each country's sovereign responsibility to protect its citizens. Statement 2 is incorrect; the strategy specifically prioritized developing countries, with a particular focus on the least developed, land-locked countries, and small-island developing states, not all developing countries equally. Statement 3 is correct as the text mentions developing national capacities including the mobilisation of non-governmental organisations and participation of local communities. Statement 4 is correct as it highlights the promotion of international cooperation with emphasis on technology sharing and mobilisation of resources. Therefore, only three statements (1, 3, and 4) are correct.

Question 13

Consider the following rows matching geographical terms with their definitions. In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
Row 1: Reserved Forest - An area where all activities are permitted unless prohibited.
Row 2: Estuary - The tidal mouth of a river where fresh and saline water get mixed.
Row 3: Catchment Area - The area drained by a major river and its tributaries.
Row 4: Playa - The low flat central area of a basin of inland drainage.

Accepted Answer

Only three rows. Let's analyze each row. Row 1 is incorrectly matched. The definition 'all activities are permitted unless prohibited' applies to a Protected Forest, not a Reserved Forest. In a Reserved Forest, all activities are prohibited unless permitted. This is a classic [TERMINOLOGY & ORIGIN SWAP]. Row 2 is correctly matched. An estuary is indeed the tidal mouth of a river where freshwater from the river mixes with saline water from the sea. Row 3 is correctly matched. A catchment area is the entire area from which a river system collects its water. Row 4 is correctly matched. A playa is a flat-floored bottom of an undrained desert basin, which becomes a shallow lake after a rain. Thus, three rows (2, 3, and 4) are correctly matched.

Question 14

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Disasters originating from cyclones are generally more predictable in terms of time and place compared to those caused by earthquakes and tsunamis.
Statement II: The significant loss of life and property from cyclones in countries like India and Bangladesh is primarily due to the absence of effective monitoring techniques and cyclone-shelters.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.. Statement I is correct. Cyclones, as atmospheric phenomena, develop over time and can be tracked using modern meteorological tools, allowing for predictions of their path, intensity, and landfall. In contrast, geophysical events like earthquakes and tsunamis occur suddenly with minimal to no warning, making them inherently less predictable. Statement II is incorrect. The primary cause for the significant loss of life and property is the high vulnerability of dense populations residing in low-lying coastal areas. While monitoring techniques and mitigation measures like cyclone-shelters have been developed, the sheer exposure of the population is the overriding factor. The statement incorrectly attributes the losses to a technological deficit rather than socio-economic vulnerability.

Question 15

With reference to the Yokohama Strategy for Natural Disaster Reduction, consider the following principles:
1. Assigning sovereign responsibility for citizen protection primarily to international bodies during disasters.
2. Prioritizing capacity-building for developing countries, especially least developed and small-island states.
3. Encouraging international cooperation focused on technology sharing and resource mobilisation.
How many of the above principles are correctly stated?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect. The strategy explicitly affirms each country's sovereign responsibility to protect its own citizens, not the transfer of this responsibility to international bodies. Statement 2 is correct. The strategy identifies the special vulnerability of developing countries and calls for prioritizing them, particularly the least developed, land-locked, and small-island developing states. Statement 3 is correct. A core component of the strategy is the promotion of international cooperation, with specific emphasis on human and institutional capacity-building, technology sharing, and the mobilisation of resources. Therefore, only two of the statements are correct.

Question 16

Consider the following rows regarding the effects of earthquakes as categorized in geographical studies. Row 1: Effect on Ground : Buckling. Row 2: Effect on Manmade Structures : Liquefaction. Row 3: Effect on Water : Tsunami. In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only one row. To determine the correct number of matched rows, each row must be analyzed based on the provided text and table. Row 1 is incorrectly matched. Buckling is an effect on manmade structures, not a direct effect on the ground. Ground effects include fissures, landslides, and liquefaction. Row 2 is incorrectly matched. Liquefaction, the process where saturated soil substantially loses strength and stiffness in response to an applied stress like shaking, is an effect on the ground, not on manmade structures. Row 3 is correctly matched. A Tsunami is a large ocean wave or a series of waves caused by the displacement of a large volume of water, typically an ocean, which is a direct effect of an earthquake on a water body. Therefore, only one row is correctly matched.

Question 17

With reference to earthquake hazard mitigation strategies, consider the following statements: 1. A primary strategy involves establishing seismological centres and using GPS to monitor tectonic plate movements for early information dissemination. 2. To mitigate risks, the construction of high-rise buildings and large industrial establishments should be discouraged in vulnerable zones. 3. In major construction activities within vulnerable areas, it is mandatory to adopt earthquake-resistant designs using heavy and dense materials for enhanced stability. How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct. A key mitigation strategy is the establishment of seismological centres for monitoring and rapid information sharing, supplemented by GPS to track tectonic plate movements. Statement 2 is correct. Risk reduction in vulnerable zones includes discouraging the development of high-rise structures and large-scale industrial or urban centres. Statement 3 is incorrect. The mitigation measures mentioned include modifying building designs, but there is no specification to use 'heavy and dense materials'. This specific material requirement is not part of the recommended strategies, making the statement inaccurate.

Question 18

Consider the following pairs regarding the effects of earthquakes as categorized by their primary impact area: Row 1: On Ground - Liquefaction; Row 2: On Manmade Structures - Tsunami; Row 3: On Water - Fissures. In how many of the above rows is the effect correctly matched with its impact area?

Accepted Answer

Only one row. Row 1 is correctly matched. Liquefaction is a phenomenon where saturated soil substantially loses strength and stiffness in response to an applied stress, like earthquake shaking, causing it to behave like a liquid. This is a direct effect on the ground. Row 2 is incorrectly matched. A Tsunami is a series of large waves, which is categorized as an effect on water. While tsunamis devastate manmade structures, their primary classification is as a hydrological phenomenon. Row 3 is incorrectly matched. Fissures are cracks that open on the earth's surface, which is a direct effect on the ground, not on water. Therefore, only one row is correctly matched.

Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding the necessary conditions for the formation of a tropical cyclone:
1. A large and continuous supply of warm and moist air is required to release enormous latent heat.
2. A strong Coriolis force is essential, which explains why tropical cyclones frequently form between 0°-5° latitude.
3. The presence of a strong vertical wind shear is a key factor that facilitates the vertical transport of latent heat.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is correct. The primary energy source for a tropical cyclone is the latent heat released during the condensation of water vapor. This process requires a substantial and continuous supply of warm, moist air, typically found over tropical oceans. Statement 2 is incorrect. While a significant Coriolis force is necessary to initiate and maintain the cyclonic rotation, this force is weakest at the equator and negligible in the 0°-5° latitude belt. Its absence in this zone prohibits the formation of tropical cyclones. Statement 3 is incorrect. The formation and intensification of a tropical cyclone require weak vertical wind shear. Strong vertical wind shear disrupts the vertical structure of the storm, inhibiting the efficient upward transport of latent heat and preventing the cyclone from organizing. Therefore, only one statement is correct.

Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of a tsunami:
1. The speed of a tsunami wave is greater in shallow coastal waters compared to the deep ocean.
2. In deep water, a tsunami is characterized by a very long wavelength and limited wave-height, making it difficult for ships at sea to detect.
3. As a tsunami enters shallow water, its wavelength gets reduced while its period remains unchanged, causing an increase in wave-height.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

All three. Statement 1 is correct. The propagation speed of the wave is dependent on the depth of the water, and it is described as being more in shallow water than in the deep ocean. Statement 2 is correct. Over the deep ocean, a tsunami possesses a very long wavelength and a low amplitude (wave-height), often only a meter or two. This makes it almost imperceptible to ships and difficult to detect. Statement 3 is correct. As the wave enters shallower coastal areas, its speed decreases, causing the wavelength to shorten. Since the wave period remains constant, the wave's energy is compressed into a smaller volume of water, leading to a dramatic increase in its height. Thus, all three statements are correct.

Question 21

Based on the Wind and Cyclone Hazard Zones of India, consider the following statements:
1. The entire East Coast of India and the coast of Gujarat are classified under the 'Very high damage risk zone'.
2. The risk zonation is uniform along the West Coast, with states like Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Goa falling into the same 'High damage risk zone'.
3. Despite being far from any coast, the entire Northeast India falls under the 'Moderate damage risk zone - B'.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct. The spatial intelligence notes explicitly state that 'Very high damage risk zones' are 'Concentrated along the entire East Coast and the coast of Gujarat.' Statement 2 is incorrect. This is a spatial trap. The notes highlight that the west coast does not have uniform risk; the 'Gujarat coast is in the 'Very high risk' category, while the Maharashtra and Goa coasts are in the 'High' and 'Moderate' risk categories.' Statement 3 is correct. The high-yield hooks from the map analysis specify that 'The entire Northeast India falls under the 'Moderate damage risk zone - B' (V=39m/s), despite being far from the sea.' Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making a total of two correct statements.

Question 22

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: A tsunami causes significantly more devastation and has a greater impact near the coast compared to its effect on a ship in the deep ocean.
Statement II: As a tsunami wave approaches shallow coastal waters, its wavelength decreases and its wave-height increases, whereas in deep water it has a very long wavelength and limited wave-height.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.. Statement I is correct. The impact of a tsunami is significantly amplified near the coast, leading to large-scale devastation, while a ship in the deep ocean is often unaffected because the wave height is minimal. Statement II is also correct. The physics of wave motion dictates that as a tsunami travels from deep to shallow water, its speed decreases, causing its wavelength to shorten and its wave-height to increase substantially. The phenomenon described in Statement II—the transformation of the wave's properties—is the direct physical cause for the increased destructive power at the coast as stated in Statement I. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Question 23

With reference to the regions frequently affected by tsunamis, consider the following:
1. The coast of Alaska
2. Malaysia
3. Sri Lanka
How many of the above are correctly listed as locations where tsunamis are frequently observed?

Accepted Answer

All three. All three regions are correctly listed. Tsunamis are frequently observed along the Pacific ring of fire and in the Indian Ocean. Statement 1 is correct: The coast of Alaska is explicitly mentioned as a location along the Pacific ring of fire where tsunamis are frequent. Statement 2 is correct: Malaysia is mentioned as one of the Southeast Asian countries where tsunamis are observed. Statement 3 is correct: Sri Lanka, an island nation in the Indian Ocean, is also listed as a frequently affected area, particularly highlighted by the 2004 event. Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Question 24

Based on the provided geographical information on flood hazard zones in India, consider the following statements:
1. Significant flood-liable areas are marked in arid regions like Rajasthan and semi-arid regions like Gujarat, indicating vulnerability to flash floods.
2. The deltas of west-flowing rivers such as the Narmada and Tapi are depicted as having extensive flood-prone zones, comparable in scale to those of east-flowing rivers.
3. The entire Brahmaputra valley in Assam is shown as a single, contiguous flood-liable zone.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct. The text and map analysis explicitly mention that states like Rajasthan and Gujarat experience inundation due to flash floods, despite their generally arid or semi-arid climate. Statement 2 is incorrect. The analysis notes that while west-flowing rivers like Narmada and Tapi have designated flood-prone areas, they are less extensive than those of the east-flowing rivers (Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna). The statement's claim of 'comparable in scale' is a scale distortion. Statement 3 is correct. The map analysis highlights that the entire Brahmaputra valley in Assam is depicted as a single, contiguous flood-liable zone, emphasizing the widespread nature of flooding in that region. Therefore, only two statements (1 and 3) are correct.

Question 25

Consider the following rows, which match a region in India with its specific type or cause of flooding:
Row 1: Tamil Nadu - Experiences flooding during November-January due to the retreating monsoon.
Row 2: Gujarat - Experiences flash floods partly due to blocking of streams by human activities.
Row 3: Eastern Uttar Pradesh - Experiences riverine floods from major rivers and their tributaries.
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

All three rows. Row 1 is correctly matched. Tamil Nadu experiences floods during the November-January period, a phenomenon associated with the retreating monsoon. Row 2 is correctly matched. States such as Gujarat have become susceptible to flash floods in recent decades, partly because of the obstruction of streams and river channels by human activities. Row 3 is correctly matched. Eastern Uttar Pradesh is a region that frequently faces inundation from 'flooding rivers,' which is a direct reference to riverine floods. Since all three rows present accurate information, the correct option is (c).

Question 26

Consider the following statements regarding floods in India:
Statement I: Unlike many other natural disasters, floods are often predictable in terms of timing and location.
Statement II: The causes of floods are well-established, and they typically occur in well-identified regions within an expected annual time frame.
Statement III: Human activities, such as indiscriminate deforestation and colonisation of flood-plains, are a primary cause of floods, not merely an aggravating factor.
Which one of the following is correct?

Accepted Answer

Statements I and II are correct, but Statement III is incorrect.. Statement I is correct. Floods are described as being relatively slow in occurrence and often happen in well-identified regions within an expected time in a year, making them more predictable than disasters like earthquakes. Statement II is also correct and provides the direct reason for the predictability mentioned in Statement I. The causes are well-established (e.g., monsoon patterns, snowmelt), and the vulnerable regions (flood plains) are known. Statement III is incorrect due to a subtle but critical distinction. The provided text states that human beings play an important role in the 'genesis as well as spread of floods' and in increasing their 'intensity, magnitude and gravity'. However, the primary natural cause is surface run-off exceeding the carrying capacity of river channels. Human activities are significant contributors and aggravators, but framing them as the 'primary cause' over the fundamental hydrological process is a misrepresentation. Therefore, Statements I and II are correct, but III is an overstatement and thus incorrect.

Question 27

Consider the following rows regarding types of droughts and their definitions:

Row 1: Meteorological Drought - When the productivity of a natural ecosystem fails due to a shortage of water.
Row 2: Agricultural Drought - When water availability in storages like aquifers and lakes falls below replenishment levels.
Row 3: Hydrological Drought - Characterised by low soil moisture necessary to support crops, leading to crop failures.

In how many of the above rows is the definition correctly matched with the type of drought?

Accepted Answer

None of the rows. None of the rows are correctly matched. The definitions have been swapped. 
- Row 1 is incorrect: The definition provided describes Ecological Drought. Meteorological Drought is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall.
- Row 2 is incorrect: The definition provided describes Hydrological Drought. Agricultural Drought, or soil moisture drought, is characterized by low soil moisture affecting crops.
- Row 3 is incorrect: The definition provided describes Agricultural Drought. Hydrological Drought is when the availability of water in storages like aquifers and reservoirs falls below normal levels.

Question 28

With reference to the spatial distribution of drought-prone areas in India, consider the following statements:

1. The 'Extreme' drought zone in India is geographically aligned with the Marusthali region and the Rann of Kutch.
2. The Aravalli Range acts as a distinct boundary separating the 'Severe' and 'Moderate' drought zones in Rajasthan.
3. The 'Severe' drought zone east of the Western Ghats is located on the windward side, which receives significantly less rainfall.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Only one statement is correct.
- Statement 1 is correct. The text and spatial notes explicitly state that the 'Extreme Drought Affected Areas' include most parts of Rajasthan west of the Aravalli hills (Marusthali) and the Kachchh (Kutch) region of Gujarat.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The Aravalli Range separates the 'Extreme' drought zone (to its west) from the 'Severe' and 'Moderate' drought zones (to its east). It does not separate the Severe and Moderate zones from each other.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The 'Severe' drought zone east of the Western Ghats is located on the leeward side (rain-shadow region), not the windward side. The windward side of the Western Ghats receives very high rainfall and is largely drought-free.

Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding landslide vulnerability zones in India:
1. The Trans-Himalayan areas of Ladakh and Spiti are classified under the Very High Vulnerability Zone due to their geologically young and unstable terrain.
2. The plains of Assam are included in the High Vulnerability Zone for landslides.
3. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are categorized within the Very High Vulnerability Zone.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The text places the Trans-Himalayan areas of Ladakh and Spiti in the 'Moderate to Low Vulnerability Zone' because they receive less precipitation, which is a key controlling factor, despite their terrain. Statement 2 is incorrect. The text explicitly states that all states from the north-eastern regions *except the plains of Assam* are included in the high vulnerability zones. Statement 3 is correct. The text clearly lists the Himalayas and Andaman and Nicobar Islands as part of the 'Very High Vulnerability Zone'. Therefore, only one statement is correct.

Question 30

Consider the following rows regarding landslide characteristics and vulnerability in India:
Row 1: Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh - Landslides primarily caused by mining and subsidence.
Row 2: Rain shadow areas of the Western Ghats - Categorized under the Very High Vulnerability Zone.
Row 3: The Aravali Range - Characterized by high precipitation and unstable relief, leading to frequent landslides.
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only one row. Row 1 is correctly matched. States such as Jharkhand, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh are specifically noted for landslides resulting from mining activities and subsidence. Row 2 is incorrectly matched. The rain shadow areas of the Western Ghats are classified under the Moderate to Low Vulnerability Zone due to lower precipitation, not the Very High Vulnerability Zone. Row 3 is incorrectly matched. The Aravali Range is characterized by stable relief and low precipitation, which are conditions associated with lower landslide risk, not high precipitation and unstable relief.

Question 31

Consider the following regions of India:
1. The plains of Assam
2. Trans-Himalayan areas of Ladakh
3. The Nilgiris with high rainfall and steep slopes
4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
How many of the regions listed above are classified under the 'Very High Vulnerability Zone' for landslides?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect. The plains of Assam are explicitly excluded from the high vulnerability zones and are categorized among the safe areas. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Trans-Himalayan areas of Ladakh, being a region of low precipitation, are placed in the 'Moderate to Low Vulnerability Zone'. Statement 3 is correct. High rainfall regions with steep slopes in the Nilgiris are explicitly included in the 'Very High Vulnerability Zone'. Statement 4 is correct. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands, being young and unstable mountainous areas, are also included in the 'Very High Vulnerability Zone'. Therefore, only two of the given regions are correctly classified.

Question 32

Consider the following statements regarding landslide mitigation:
Statement I: Area-specific mitigation measures, such as promoting terrace farming, are particularly encouraged in the northeastern hill states.
Statement II: The prevalence of Jhumming (Slash and Burn cultivation) in these states is a significant factor contributing to slope instability and landslide risk.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are correct and there is a direct causal link. Statement I makes an assertion about a specific mitigation strategy (terrace farming) in a specific region (northeastern hill states). Statement II provides the underlying reason for this specific recommendation: the practice of Jhumming in that region degrades the slopes and increases landslide risk. Therefore, the need to counter the effects of Jhumming (Statement II) is the direct explanation for why terrace farming is promoted (Statement I).

Natural Hazards And Disasters In India

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