Q1.Consider the following statements regarding India's industrial policies prior to 1991:
1. The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948 introduced the concept of a 'joint sector' involving partnership between State, Central governments, and the private sector.
2. The Industrial Policy Statement of 1977 accorded the highest priority to the development of heavy industries and industrial development in backward regions.
3. The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 replaced the four-fold classification of industries from the 1948 policy with a new three-fold classification.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The concept of a 'joint sector' was introduced by the Industrial Policy Statement of 1973, not the IPR of 1948. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Industrial Policy Statement of 1977 focused on small-scale and tiny industries. The emphasis on heavy industries and development in backward regions was a key feature of the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956. Statement 3 is correct. The IPR-1956 changed the four-fold classification of industries under IPR-1948 to a three-fold classification (Schedule A, B, and C).
TextbookMedium
Q2.With reference to the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI), consider the following statements:
1. The ASI is the principal source of industrial statistics for both the organised and unorganised manufacturing sectors in India.
2. The survey's coverage includes all defence establishments and departmental units like railway workshops to ensure a comprehensive dataset.
3. The ASI is published annually by the National Statistical Office (NSO) and covers factories employing 10 or more workers using power.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: To determine the correct number of accurate statements, each must be evaluated based on the scope and mandate of the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI). The ASI is the principal source of industrial statistics for the organised manufacturing sector only; data for the unorganised sector is collected through separate surveys. The survey's coverage also has specific exclusions, which include defence establishments and departmental units such as railway workshops. The survey is, however, published annually by the National Statistical Office (NSO) and its coverage includes factories registered under the Factories Act, 1948, which encompasses units employing 10 or more workers using power. Based on this analysis, only the third statement is correct. Therefore, the correct option is 'Only one'.
TextbookHard
Q3.Consider the following statements about the pre-1991 industrial framework in India:
1. The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956, known as the 'Bible of State Capitalism', introduced the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act.
2. The Industries (Development & Regulation) Act, 1951, empowered the government to control industries primarily through licensing, allocation of raw materials, and price controls.
3. The Industrial Policy Statement of 1973 identified six core industries, including iron and steel, and introduced the concept of a 'joint sector' through Public-Private Partnership.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act, 1969 was introduced as part of the Industrial Policy Statement of 1969, not the IPR of 1956. Statement 2 is correct. The Industries (Development & Regulation) Act of 1951 was the basis for the 'license raj' and empowered the government to exercise control through licensing, allocation of raw materials, and price controls. Statement 3 is correct. The Industrial Policy Statement of 1973 identified six core industries (iron and steel, cement, coal, crude oil, oil refinery and electricity) and gave emphasis to Public-Private Partnership, which was called the 'joint sector'.
TextbookMedium
Q4.Consider the following statements regarding the measurement of industrial performance in India:
1. In the sectoral-based classification for computing the Index of Industrial Production (IIP), the manufacturing sector is assigned the highest weight.
2. In the use-based classification for computing the IIP, primary goods are assigned the highest weight.
3. The eight core industries collectively comprise more than half of the total weight in the IIP.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The manufacturing sector is assigned a weight of 77.6 per cent in the IIP, which is the highest among the three sub-sectors (Mining, Manufacturing, and Electricity).
Statement 2 is correct. The text explicitly states that in terms of use-based classification, primary goods carry the highest weight in the measurement of IIP.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The eight core industries comprise 40.27 per cent of the weight in the IIP, which is less than half (50 per cent).
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TextbookHard
Q5.Consider the following statements regarding various institutions and indices related to the Indian economy:
1. The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is compiled and published by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
2. The Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) in India is compiled and published by the Reserve Bank of India.
3. The National Productivity Council (NPC) is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is compiled and published by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), now known as the National Statistical Office (NSO), which operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, not the Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) in India is published by the Japanese firm Nikkei and compiled by IHT Markit, not by the Reserve Bank of India.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The National Productivity Council (NPC) is an autonomous, non-profit organization registered as a Society under the Societies Registration Act XXI of 1860. It is not a statutory body, which would require its establishment through an Act of Parliament.
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TextbookMedium
Q6.With reference to the Index of Eight Core Industries, consider the following statements:
1. Refinery products are assigned the highest weight in this index.
2. The combined weight of Crude Oil and Natural Gas is greater than the weight of the Steel sector.
3. The Government of India is a founder member of the Asian Productivity Organisation (APO), of which the National Productivity Council (NPC) is a constituent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. In the Index of Eight Core Industries (base year 2011-12), Refinery Products have the highest weightage at 28.04%.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The weight of Crude Oil is 8.98% and Natural Gas is 6.88%. Their combined weight is 15.86%. The weight of the Steel sector is 17.92%. Thus, the combined weight of Crude Oil and Natural Gas is less than that of Steel.
Statement 3 is correct. The National Productivity Council (NPC) is an autonomous organization under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce & Industry. It is a constituent of the Tokyo-based Asian Productivity Organisation (APO), of which the Government of India is a founder member.
Since two statements (1 and 3) are correct, the correct option is 'b'.
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TextbookHard
Q7.Consider the following statements regarding industrial policy in India:
1. Railway Operations is one of the sectors that presently requires compulsory industrial licensing.
2. Industrial explosives is one of the sectors currently reserved for the public sector.
3. The New Industrial Policy, 1991, reduced the number of industries reserved for the public sector from 17 to 8.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: To determine the correct option, let's analyze each statement:
* **Statement 1 is incorrect.** Railway Operations is not a sector requiring compulsory industrial licensing. It is one of the few sectors currently reserved exclusively for the public sector (along with Atomic Energy).
* **Statement 2 is incorrect.** Industrial explosives is not a sector reserved for the public sector. Instead, it is one of the industries where compulsory industrial licensing is required.
* **Statement 3 is correct.** The New Industrial Policy of 1991 marked a significant shift towards liberalization. It reduced the number of industries reserved for the public sector from 17 (as per the 1956 policy) to 8, opening up many areas for private sector participation.
Since only one statement (Statement 3) is correct, the correct option is 'a'.
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TextbookHard
Q8.Consider the following statements regarding the recommendations of the Baba Kalyani Committee on SEZ Policy:
1. The committee recommended shifting the SEZ framework's focus from broad-based employment and economic growth to export growth.
2. It suggested adopting a supply-driven approach to improve the efficiency of investment in SEZs.
3. A key recommendation was to formulate uniform rules and procedures for both manufacturing and service SEZs to simplify compliance.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The committee recommended shifting the framework from export growth to broad-based employment and economic growth, not the other way around. Statement 2 is incorrect. The committee recommended a shift from a supply-driven approach to a demand-driven approach to improve investment efficiency. Statement 3 is incorrect. The committee recommended formulating separate rules and procedures for manufacturing and service SEZs, not uniform ones.
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TextbookMedium
Q9.Statement-I: The New Industrial Policy (NIP) of 1991 represented a fundamental shift from a regulatory to a developmental approach for Indian industry.
Statement-II: A primary component of the NIP 1991 was the establishment of Special Economic Zones (SEZs), which are duty-free enclaves deemed as foreign territory for trade purposes.
Explanation: Statement-I is correct. The New Industrial Policy of 1991 aimed to correct distortions by shifting the emphasis from regulation to development. This included measures like industrial de-licensing and de-reservation of the public sector. Statement-II is incorrect. The concept of Special Economic Zones (SEZs) as duty-free enclaves was introduced through the SEZ Policy of 2000 and formalized by the SEZ Act of 2005. This was not a feature of the New Industrial Policy of 1991.
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TextbookHard
Q10.Consider the following statements regarding the eligibility criteria for Maharatna and Navratna status for Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs):
1. A CPSE must have an average annual net worth of more than ₹25,000 crore during the last 3 years to be eligible for Maharatna status.
2. Having a 'Miniratna Category-I' status is a prerequisite for a CPSE to be considered for Navratna status.
3. A significant global presence or international operations is a mandatory criterion for a CPSE to be granted Navratna status.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The eligibility criterion for Maharatna status requires an average annual turnover of more than ₹25,000 crore and an average annual net worth of more than ₹15,000 crore during the last 3 years. The statement incorrectly applies the turnover figure to the net worth criterion. Statement 2 is correct. To be considered for Navratna status, a CPSE must first have ‘Miniratna Category-I’ status. Statement 3 is incorrect. The requirement of having a significant global presence or international operations is an eligibility criterion for Maharatna status, not for Navratna status. Therefore, only one statement is correct.
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TextbookHard
Q11.Examine the following two statements:
Statement-I: A Maharatna CPSE possesses greater financial autonomy for single-project investments without government approval compared to a Navratna CPSE.
Statement-II: The absolute ceiling for a single-project investment without government approval for a Maharatna is ₹5,000 crore, which is five times the corresponding limit of ₹1,000 crore for a Navratna.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement-I is correct. The hierarchy of CPSE categories (Maharatna, Navratna, Miniratna) is designed to provide progressively greater financial autonomy, with Maharatna being the highest category. Statement-II is also correct. It specifies the exact financial limits that define this autonomy: a Maharatna CPSE can invest up to ₹5,000 crore in a single project without government approval, whereas a Navratna CPSE's limit is ₹1,000 crore. Because the higher investment ceiling mentioned in Statement-II is the direct reason for the greater financial autonomy mentioned in Statement-I, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
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TextbookMedium
Q12.Consider the following statements regarding the financial autonomy of Miniratna Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs):
1. Category-I Miniratna CPSEs can incur capital expenditure up to ₹300 crore or equal to 50% of their net worth, whichever is lower, without government approval.
2. To qualify for Category-II Miniratna status, a CPSE must have earned a pre-tax profit of ₹30 crore or more in at least one of the last three years.
3. Both Category-I and Category-II Miniratnas can enter into joint ventures and form subsidiaries in India, subject to specified restrictions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. A Category-I Miniratna can incur capital expenditure up to ₹300 crore or equal to its net worth, whichever is lower. The '50% of net worth' clause applies to Category-II Miniratnas. Statement 2 is incorrect. The criterion of earning a pre-tax profit of ₹30 crore or more in at least one of the three years is for Category-I Miniratnas. Category-II Miniratnas only need to have made profits continuously for the last three years and have a positive net worth. Statement 3 is correct. The text explicitly states that both categories of Miniratnas can enter into joint ventures and form subsidiaries in India, subject to specified restrictions. Therefore, only one statement is correct.
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TextbookHard
Q13.With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) provisions under the Companies Act, 2013, consider the following statements:
1. Activities undertaken outside India are strictly prohibited from being considered as eligible CSR activities without any exceptions.
2. Contributions made to any fund set up by the central government for socio-economic development are considered eligible CSR expenditure.
3. Activities that benefit the employees of the company are considered an eligible CSR activity under the category of 'employment-enhancing vocational skills'.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. While activities undertaken outside India are generally excluded, there is a specific exception for the training of Indian sports personnel representing a State/UT at the national level or India at the international level. The use of 'strictly' and 'without any exceptions' makes the statement false.
Statement 2 is correct. The list of eligible activities includes contributions to funds like the Swachh Bharat Kosh, Clean Ganga Fund, PMNRF, and PM CARES Fund, and more broadly, 'any fund set up by the central government and notified by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs for socio-economic development'.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The text specifically excludes 'Activities benefitting employees of the company' from being considered as eligible CSR activity. While 'Employment-enhancing vocational skills' is an eligible activity, it cannot be conflated with activities that directly benefit a company's own employees, which is a specific exclusion.
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TextbookHard
Q14.Consider the following statements regarding the institutional framework for industrial sickness and corporate governance in India:
1. The Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) was established under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 and was eventually replaced by the Company Law Board.
2. Under the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2019, a creditor can apply to the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) to place the management of a company in the hands of a judicial manager.
3. The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) has the authority to adjudicate proceedings that were pending before the now-dissolved Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR).
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because the Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) was established under the Sick Industrial Companies (Special Provisions) Act, 1985 (SICA), not the Companies Act, 2013. Furthermore, the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) replaced the BIFR, not the Company Law Board.
Statement 2 is incorrect because while the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2019, introduced a Judicial Management Mechanism, the application to appoint a judicial manager must be made to the High Court, not the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
Statement 3 is correct because upon the dissolution of the BIFR, the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), established under the Companies Act, 2013, was given the power to adjudicate all proceedings that were pending before the BIFR.
Therefore, only one statement is correct.
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TextbookHard
Q15.Consider the following statements regarding the National Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZ):
1. The State government is tasked with providing external physical infrastructure linkages, such as railroads and airports, to the NIMZ.
2. The Central government is responsible for providing a suitable land parcel of at least 5,000 hectares for the establishment of an NIMZ.
3. A minimum of 30 percent of the total designated area within an NIMZ is to be allocated for the location of manufacturing units.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The provided text specifies that the central government is responsible for improving or providing external physical infrastructure linkages to NIMZ, including railroad and airport connections. Statement 2 is incorrect. The text clearly states that the State government is to provide the suitable land of 5,000 ha. The roles of the Central and State governments have been swapped in these two statements. Statement 3 is correct. The text explicitly mentions that at least 30 percent of the total area of an NIMZ is to be utilized for the location of manufacturing units. Therefore, only one statement is correct.
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TextbookHard
Q16.Statement-I: The National Manufacturing Policy, 2011, envisioned National Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs) as instruments for promoting manufacturing, and these are distinct from Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in terms of size and governance.
Statement-II: The policy framework for NIMZs explicitly excluded their establishment within major industrial corridors, such as the Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor (DMIC), to avoid overlapping jurisdictions.
Explanation: Statement-I is correct. The text explicitly states that 'NIMZs are different from SEZs in terms of size, level of infrastructure planning, governance structures related to regulatory procedures, and exit policies.' Statement-II is incorrect. While an initial sentence mentions '14 such NIMZs were identified throughout the country except for the Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor,' a subsequent sentence clarifies that 'eight investment regions along the Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor (DMIC) project have also been declared as NIMZs.' This confirms that NIMZs were not excluded from the DMIC, making the statement false.
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TextbookMedium
Q17.Consider the following statements based on the provided text:
1. India is the world's second-largest manufacturer of fibre, after China.
2. In the pharmaceutical sector, India ranks as the world's second-biggest industry by volume.
3. India has emerged as the second-largest consumer and second-biggest worldwide producer of finished steel.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The text states, 'India is the second largest manufacturer of fibre in the world after China.' Statement 2 is incorrect. The text specifies that the 'Indian pharmaceutical sector is the world’s third biggest by volume,' not second. Statement 3 is correct. The text mentions that 'India has become the second largest consumer of finished steel' and is the 'second biggest worldwide producer, after China.' Therefore, two of the three statements are correct.
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TextbookHard
Q18.With reference to the reforms undertaken by the Government of India to improve its Ease of Doing Business ranking, consider the following statements:
1. The introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) was a key reform aimed at improving India's performance in the 'Enforcing Contracts' indicator.
2. To improve the 'Resolving Insolvency' indicator, the pecuniary jurisdiction of commercial courts was reduced from ₹1 crore to ₹3 lakh.
3. The initiative to make secured creditors the first to be paid during business liquidation was a reform under the 'Getting Credit' indicator.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: To determine the correct number of statements, each must be evaluated against the specific indicators of the Ease of Doing Business framework.
* **Statement 1 is incorrect.** The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was a major tax reform that subsumed multiple indirect taxes into a single tax. This simplified the process of tax compliance and reduced the number of payments, thereby improving India's ranking in the **'Paying Taxes'** indicator, not 'Enforcing Contracts'.
* **Statement 2 is incorrect.** The reduction of the pecuniary jurisdiction for commercial courts from ₹1 crore to ₹3 lakh was aimed at bringing more commercial disputes under the ambit of specialized, fast-track courts. This reform was designed to ensure speedier disposal of commercial disputes and directly improved the **'Enforcing Contracts'** indicator, not 'Resolving Insolvency'.
* **Statement 3 is correct.** Strengthening the rights of creditors is a key component of the 'Getting Credit' indicator. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) established a clear priority for paying back creditors during liquidation, with secured creditors being paid first. This strengthens their legal rights, making it easier for businesses to obtain credit.
Since only the third statement is correct, the correct option is 'a', which states that only one statement is correct.
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TextbookHard
Q19.Consider the following statements regarding the 'Champion Sectors' initiative:
1. The Department of Commerce is the nodal department that spearheads the initiative for the Champion Sectors in Manufacturing.
2. The identification of Champion Sectors is an integral part of the 'Make in India version 2.0' initiative.
3. Both 'Pharmaceuticals and Medical Devices' and 'New and Renewable Energy' are included in the list of Champion Sectors in Manufacturing.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) is the nodal department for the Champion Sectors in Manufacturing. The Department of Commerce coordinates the initiative for the Champion Sectors in Services. Statement 2 is correct. The text explicitly states that the identified champion sectors have been selected for renewed focus under the 'Make in India version 2.0'. Statement 3 is correct. The provided list of 15 Champion Sectors in Manufacturing includes both 'Pharmaceuticals and Medical Devices' and 'New and Renewable Energy'.
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TextbookMedium
Q20.Consider the following statements regarding government initiatives to support entrepreneurship:
1. The Stand-Up India scheme provides a Fund of Funds with a corpus of ₹10,000 crore, managed by SIDBI, to support startups.
2. The Make in India initiative established the Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency (MUDRA) bank to provide venture capital financing to new setups.
3. The Start-up India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS) was launched to provide financial assistance to startups through approved incubators.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The Fund of Funds (FFS) with a corpus of ₹10,000 crore managed by SIDBI was established under the Start-Up India initiative, not Stand-Up India. Statement 2 is incorrect. The MUDRA bank was set up to provide development and refinance to commercial banks/NBFCs/cooperative banks for loans to micro units; it was not established for venture capital financing, which was the role of the India Aspiration Fund under SIDBI. Statement 3 is correct. The Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS) is implemented by the government to provide financial assistance to startups via approved incubators.
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Current AffairsHard
Q21.With reference to the capital goods sector and investment in an economy, consider the following statements:
1. A sustained increase in government capital expenditure is a key policy tool for stimulating industrial growth.
2. An increase in public capital expenditure on infrastructure invariably leads to the crowding out of private investment.
3. Capital goods are final goods that are used as inputs for the further production of other goods and services.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Government spending on capital assets like infrastructure enhances the economy's productive capacity and can stimulate industrial activity. Statement 2 is incorrect. While crowding out is a theoretical possibility, recent policy and economic theory suggest that public capex can 'crowd in' private investment by improving logistics and creating demand. The word 'invariably' makes the statement definitively false. Statement 3 is correct. This is the standard definition of capital goods; they are not consumed but are used to produce other goods.
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Current AffairsHard
Q22.Consider the following statements regarding the Union Budget's focus on capital expenditure:
Statement-I: The sustained increase in public capital expenditure is primarily intended to create a 'crowding-out' effect, thereby reducing the private sector's role in infrastructure.
Statement-II: The government's strategy anticipates that higher public capital outlay will stimulate private investment and expand the economy's overall productive capacity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement-I is incorrect. The economic principle cited in the provided text and underlying the government's strategy is 'crowding-in,' not 'crowding-out.' The goal is to encourage and stimulate private investment, not displace it. Statement-II is correct. This statement accurately reflects the information provided in the summary: 'Higher public capex is expected to crowd in private investment and expand productive capacity across sectors.' The policy uses public funds as a catalyst for broader economic growth.
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Current AffairsHard
Q23.Consider the following statements regarding the Index of Industrial Production (IIP):
1. In the sectoral classification of the IIP, the mining sector is assigned the highest weightage.
2. The IIP is compiled and published on a monthly basis by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
3. In the use-based classification of the IIP, capital goods have the highest weightage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. In the sectoral classification of the IIP, the manufacturing sector has the highest weightage (over 77%), not the mining sector. Statement 2 is correct. The National Statistical Office (NSO), under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, is the agency responsible for compiling and releasing the IIP data every month. Statement 3 is incorrect. In the use-based classification of the IIP, primary goods carry the highest weightage, not capital goods.
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Current AffairsHard
Q24.With reference to the evolution of India's industrial policy since 1991, consider the following statements:
1. Production related to Atomic Energy is one of the few sectors still under the compulsory industrial licensing regime.
2. The policy shift aimed at deregulation led to the abolition of industrial licensing for all sectors, including defence equipment and hazardous chemicals.
3. The number of industries exclusively reserved for the public sector has been progressively reduced to fewer than five.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Atomic energy is not under the compulsory licensing list; it is one of the few sectors exclusively reserved for the public sector. This is a distinct classification from industrial licensing. Statement 2 is incorrect. While industrial licensing was abolished for most industries, a few strategic sectors, including electronic aerospace, defence equipment, and specific hazardous chemicals, still require compulsory licensing. Statement 3 is correct. Post-1991 reforms, the list of industries reserved for the public sector was drastically curtailed, and currently, only two sectors—Atomic Energy and Railway Operations—remain reserved.
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Current AffairsHard
Q25.Consider the following statements regarding the framework of Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in India:
1. The establishment of a Special Economic Zone is exclusively reserved for the Central Government or its designated agencies.
2. For the purposes of trade operations, duties, and tariffs, an SEZ is legally deemed to be a territory outside the customs territory of India.
3. A key objective of recent reform proposals is to allow SEZ units to undertake manufacturing activities for the domestic market, a practice known as 'reverse job work'.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the SEZ framework, an SEZ can be established by the private, public, or joint sectors, as well as by State Governments, not just the Central Government. Statement 2 is correct. An SEZ is treated as a foreign territory for trade and customs purposes, making it a duty-free enclave to promote exports. Statement 3 is correct. Recent discussions on SEZ reforms include proposals for 'reverse job work', which would permit SEZ units to manufacture for the Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) to enhance capacity utilization.
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Current AffairsHard
Q26.Consider the following statements regarding the financing and autonomy of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) in India:
1. In recent years, the reliance of CPSEs on their Internal and Extra Budgetary Resources (IEBR) for capital expenditure has consistently increased, reducing their dependence on government budgetary support.
2. The status of 'Navratna' or 'Miniratna' is granted to a CPSE to provide greater financial autonomy, which can be constrained by pressures to pay high dividends to the government.
3. All Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), including Public Sector Banks and State-Level Public Enterprises, are administered by the Department of Public Enterprises.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Recent trends show that CPSEs' dependence on government budgetary support has increased, while their reliance on Internal and Extra Budgetary Resources (IEBR) for financing capital expenditure has declined. Statement 2 is correct. The classification into Maharatna, Navratna, or Miniratna is intended to grant greater operational and financial autonomy. However, this autonomy can be practically limited by government policies, such as expectations for high dividend payouts, which can reduce funds available for reinvestment. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Department of Public Enterprises administers Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs). Public Sector Banks and State-Level Public Enterprises fall under the purview of other bodies like the Department of Financial Services and respective state governments.
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Current AffairsHard
Q27.With reference to the global competitiveness of India's textile industry, consider the following statements:
1. A substantial majority of the production capacity within India's textile industry is concentrated in Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) clusters.
2. Compared to key competitors like Bangladesh and Vietnam, India's textile sector exhibits higher labour productivity, enhancing its manufacturing efficiency.
3. The textile industry is the largest employment generator in the country's manufacturing sector and contributes more than one-tenth to India's total exports.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The Indian textile industry is characterized by a decentralized structure, with approximately 80% of its production capacity located within MSME clusters. Statement 2 is incorrect. India's labour productivity in the textile sector is currently lower than that of key competitors such as Bangladesh and Vietnam, which poses a challenge to its competitiveness. Statement 3 is correct. As the second-largest employer after agriculture, the textile industry is the largest within the manufacturing sector, and its contribution to total exports is around 12%, which is more than one-tenth.
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Current AffairsHard
Q28.With reference to India's industrial policy and the role of Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs), consider the following statements:
1. The government's stated policy includes the privatization or closure of loss-making Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) in non-strategic sectors.
2. As per recent assessments, the pace of disinvestment and closure of designated non-strategic CPSEs has significantly accelerated.
3. Under the Indian Constitution, 'Industries' is a subject placed under the concurrent control of both the Union and the States.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The Public Sector Enterprise (PSE) Policy for Atmanirbhar Bharat outlines a framework for privatizing or closing CPSEs in non-strategic sectors. Statement 2 is incorrect. Recent parliamentary committee reports, such as from the Standing Committee on Finance, have observed that disinvestment plans for non-strategic CPSEs have stalled, not accelerated. Statement 3 is incorrect. Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, 'Industries' is primarily a subject under the State List. However, the Union List grants Parliament significant control over industries that are declared by law to be of national importance. Therefore, it is not a Concurrent List subject.
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Current AffairsHard
Q29.Consider the following statements regarding India's strategy for securing critical minerals:
1. The strategy prioritizes overseas acquisitions of mineral assets, sidelining domestic exploration efforts to conserve national resources.
2. A key component involves an incentive scheme to develop recycling capacity for minerals like lithium and cobalt from sources like e-waste.
3. The Geological Survey of India is excluded from exploration activities under the mission to exclusively promote private sector participation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; the strategy is multipronged and includes aggressive domestic exploration, not its sidelining. Statement 2 is correct, as the government has launched an incentive scheme for recycling critical minerals to supplement supply and manage waste. Statement 3 is incorrect, as the Geological Survey of India (GSI) is actively undertaking numerous exploration projects as part of the mission.
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Current AffairsMedium
Q30.With reference to India's initiatives for a circular economy in the minerals sector, consider the following statements:
1. The government has launched an incentive scheme focused on building recycling capacity primarily for bulk minerals like iron ore and steel scrap.
2. The initiative aims to supplement domestic supply chains for strategic minerals more rapidly than what can be achieved through new mining projects.
3. A primary objective of promoting mineral recycling is to manage and reduce the environmental impact of growing electronic and battery waste.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; the new incentive scheme specifically targets critical minerals like lithium, cobalt, and rare earths, not bulk minerals which have different recycling ecosystems. Statement 2 is correct because recycling offers a much shorter timeline to produce usable minerals compared to the long gestation period of greenfield mining. Statement 3 is correct as managing e-waste and spent batteries is a key driver and co-benefit of the critical mineral recycling policy.
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Current AffairsHard
Q31.Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: A primary objective of India's national manufacturing policies has been to increase the sector's share in national GDP and create large-scale employment.
Statement-II: Securing a domestic supply chain for critical minerals is essential for enhancing competitiveness and value addition in advanced manufacturing sectors.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement-I correctly identifies a long-standing goal of India's economic policy, exemplified by various initiatives aimed at boosting the industrial sector. Statement-II is also correct, as critical minerals are vital for advanced and clean energy manufacturing, a point underscored by the National Critical Minerals Mission. However, Statement-II describes a contemporary strategy to achieve competitiveness in specific high-tech manufacturing areas. It is not the foundational reason or explanation for the broader, historical objective stated in Statement-I, which was driven by more general goals of job creation and industrial growth.
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Current AffairsHard
Q32.With reference to the regulatory framework for the corporate sector in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) is the primary administrative authority for the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
2. The supervision of professional bodies like the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the MCA.
3. The administration of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, is a function carried out by the MCA.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) is the nodal ministry responsible for administering and implementing the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the MCA supervises the ICAI, its jurisdiction is not exclusive. The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA), an independent regulator, also has significant powers to oversee auditors and accounting firms. Statement 3 is correct. The MCA is tasked with carrying out governmental functions related to the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, in addition to its primary role with company law.
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