Q1.With reference to the liabilities of a bank as defined in the Indian banking context, consider the following statements:
1. Balances held in overdue fixed deposits are classified as Time Liabilities.
2. Margins held against Letters of Credit, if they are not payable on demand, are considered Time Liabilities.
3. Interest accrued on various deposits is categorized exclusively under Demand Liabilities.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. When a fixed deposit matures and is not withdrawn, it becomes an 'overdue' deposit. Since this amount is payable to the depositor on demand, it is classified as a Demand Liability, not a Time Liability.
Statement 2 is correct. Margins held against instruments like Letters of Credit are typically Demand Liabilities. However, if the specific terms of the margin state that it is not payable on demand, it is correctly classified as a Time Liability. The statement accurately describes this specific condition.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Interest accrued on deposits is not classified exclusively under Demand Liabilities. It is treated as part of 'Other Demand and Time Liabilities' (ODTL), a miscellaneous category that is distinct from the main Demand and Time Liability classifications.
TextbookHard
Q2.Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The regulatory authority for Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) has been transferred from the National Housing Bank (NHB) to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Statement-II: This transfer of regulatory power was a direct consequence of the Narasimham Committee's recommendation that the RBI, as a regulator, should not own the financial firms it regulates.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement-I is correct. The regulatory oversight for HFCs was indeed transferred from the NHB to the RBI. Statement-II is incorrect. The reason provided for the transfer of HFC regulation was the recent deceleration in their credit growth and their muted profitability. The Narasimham Committee's recommendation regarding RBI not owning regulated entities is mentioned in the context of the government acquiring RBI's stake in NHB and NABARD, not as the reason for the transfer of HFC regulatory powers.
TextbookMedium
Q3.With reference to the Long Term Repo Operations (LTRO) introduced by the RBI, consider the following statements:
1. The primary purpose of LTRO is to assure banks of durable liquidity for a period of 1 to 3 years at the prevailing repo rate.
2. LTROs are expected to cause an increase in the short-term market interest rates charged by Scheduled Commercial Banks.
3. One of the intended effects of LTRO is to boost investment in corporate bonds.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. LTROs are designed to provide durable liquidity to Scheduled Commercial Banks for a tenure of one to three years at the repo rate. Statement 2 is incorrect. The objective of injecting liquidity through LTRO is to lower the cost of funds for banks, which in turn is expected to help bring down, not increase, short-term market interest rates. Statement 3 is correct. By ensuring liquidity and lowering rates, LTROs are intended to encourage banks to increase their lending and investment activities, which includes boosting investment in corporate bonds.
TextbookHard
Q4.With reference to the functions of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), consider the following statements:
1. The RBI has the sole and exclusive authority to issue all denominations of currency notes in India.
2. For issuing currency notes, the RBI is required to maintain a minimum reserve of ₹200 crore, the entirety of which must be held in the form of gold.
3. One-rupee notes and all coins are issued by the Government of India and are put into circulation exclusively by government agencies, bypassing the RBI's distribution network.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The RBI has the authority to issue currency notes of all denominations except the one-rupee note. The one-rupee note is issued by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. Therefore, the RBI's authority does not extend to 'all' denominations.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the Minimum Reserve System, the RBI is required to maintain a minimum reserve of ₹200 crore. However, of this total, a minimum of ₹115 crore must be in gold, and the remaining portion can be held as foreign currency reserves. The assertion that the 'entirety' must be gold is false.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While one-rupee notes and coins are indeed issued by the Government of India, they are put into circulation through the distribution network of the Reserve Bank of India. The RBI acts as the agent for the government in distributing and handling coins and one-rupee notes across the country. They do not bypass the RBI's network.
Since all three statements are incorrect, the correct answer is 'None'.
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TextbookHard
Q5.Consider the following statements regarding the subsidiaries of the Reserve Bank of India:
1. The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the RBI that has taken over the management of the Indian Financial Network (INFINET).
2. The Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited (BRBNMPL) owns and operates the currency printing presses located at Nasik and Dewas.
3. Reserve Bank Information Technology Pvt. Ltd. (ReBIT) was established to manage the IT and cybersecurity requirements for the RBI and its regulated entities.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Financial Technology and Allied Services (IFTAS), another subsidiary of the RBI, is responsible for managing the Indian Financial Network (INFINET). The DICGC's mandate is to provide deposit insurance. Statement 2 is incorrect. The BRBNMPL, an RBI subsidiary, owns and operates the presses at Mysore and Salboni. The presses at Nasik and Dewas are owned by the Government of India. Statement 3 is correct. ReBIT is a fully owned subsidiary of the RBI, established in 2016 to handle the central bank's and its regulated firms' IT and cybersecurity needs. Therefore, only one statement is correct.
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TextbookHard
Q6.Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Reserve Bank of India's surplus transfer to the government is guided by the Economic Capital Framework (ECF), which determines the appropriate level of risk provisions to be maintained by the central bank.
Statement-II: The Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA) represents realized gains from the sale of gold and foreign exchange, and these gains are the primary source of the RBI's income that is transferred as surplus.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement-I is correct. The Economic Capital Framework (ECF) provides a methodology for determining the appropriate amount of risk provisions and profit distribution for the RBI, thereby guiding how much surplus can be transferred to the government. Statement-II is incorrect. The Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA) reflects unrealised gains or losses on the value of gold and foreign exchange held by the RBI due to price fluctuations. These are not considered part of the RBI's income account and are not the source of transferable surplus. The CGRA is a balance-sheet item that acts as a buffer against valuation changes, whereas the surplus transfer comes from the RBI's net income (income over expenditure).
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TextbookHard
Q7.With reference to the differences between Banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements:
1. NBFCs are regulated under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, whereas Banks are regulated under the Companies Act, 1956.
2. NBFCs are not required to maintain Reserve Ratios such as the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
3. The Deposit Insurance Facility is not available to the depositors of NBFCs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The regulatory frameworks are swapped. Banks are regulated under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, while NBFCs are regulated under the Companies Act. Statement 2 is correct. Unlike banks, NBFCs are not required to maintain prescribed Reserve Ratios (CRR, SLR). Statement 3 is correct. The deposit insurance and credit guarantee facility is not available to depositors of NBFCs, unlike banks.
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TextbookHard
Q8.Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB):
1. It was established to replace the Banks Board Bureau and recommends appointments for directors in public sector banks and insurers.
2. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India is an ex-officio member of the FSIB.
3. The FSIB is an autonomous statutory body established by an Act of Parliament to ensure its independence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The FSIB was established in place of the Banks Board Bureau (BBB) to recommend persons for appointments of directors and non-executive chairpersons on the boards of public sector banks, public sector insurers, and financial institutions. Statement 2 is incorrect. A Deputy Governor of the RBI, not the Governor, serves as an ex-officio member of the FSIB. Statement 3 is incorrect. The FSIB was established through a government resolution, not an Act of Parliament. Therefore, it is not a statutory body.
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TextbookHard
Q9.Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Following a 2020 amendment to the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, Co-operative Banks were brought under the exclusive regulatory control of the Reserve Bank of India, ending the dual control system.
Statement-II: The amendment empowers the RBI to supersede the board of a Co-operative Bank under stress, but this action requires consultation with the concerned State Government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement-I is incorrect. The use of the word 'exclusive' is an overstatement. While the RBI's powers were significantly enhanced, the regulatory framework did not become entirely exclusive. The requirement for consultation with the State Government on certain matters, as mentioned in Statement-II, shows that the state's role is not completely eliminated. Statement-II is correct. The text explicitly states that the RBI can supersede the board of a stressed Co-operative Bank 'in consultation with the State Government'.
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TextbookHard
Q10.Consider the following statements regarding reserve requirements in the Indian banking system:
1. While Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) can earn returns on assets maintained under the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), the deposits maintained under the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) with the RBI do not yield any interest for the banks.
2. The RBI Act, 1934, empowers the Reserve Bank of India to fix the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) within a prescribed range of 0 per cent to 40 per cent of a bank's Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL).
3. Both CRR and SLR assets are required to be maintained by the SCBs with the Reserve Bank of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Banks can maintain SLR in the form of cash, gold, or government-approved securities. The government securities earn interest for the banks. Conversely, the text explicitly states that the RBI does not pay any interest on CRR balances maintained by SCBs. Statement 2 is incorrect. The prescribed range of 0 per cent to 40 per cent applies to the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), not the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). The provisions of the RBI Act do not prescribe any range (ceiling or floor rate) for fixing CRR. Statement 3 is incorrect. CRR is maintained by SCBs with the RBI in the form of cash. However, SLR is maintained by the SCBs themselves in the form of cash, gold, or approved securities.
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TextbookHard
Q11.Consider the following statements regarding the various policy rates and facilities of the Reserve Bank of India:
1. The Bank Rate is the interest rate at which the RBI provides long-term loans to commercial banks and is fixed at a rate lower than the policy repo rate.
2. The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) allows the RBI to absorb liquidity from the banking system without offering any government securities as collateral.
3. Under the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF), eligible banks can avail overnight loans against government securities at an interest rate that is typically set 25 basis points below the prevailing repo rate.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The Bank Rate is aligned with the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate, which is maintained at a level higher than the policy repo rate (typically 25 basis points above). It is not set lower than the repo rate.
Statement 2 is correct. The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) is a monetary policy tool for absorbing liquidity from commercial banks. Its distinguishing feature is that it is collateral-free, meaning the RBI does not need to provide government securities in exchange for the deposits.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is an emergency borrowing window for banks. The interest rate charged under MSF is a penal rate, which is set at a premium over the repo rate (typically 25 basis points above it), not below it. This makes borrowing from the MSF more expensive for banks than borrowing under the repo auction.
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TextbookHard
Q12.Consider the following two statements:
**Statement-I:** A 'Hawkish' monetary policy stance by a central bank might lead to the strengthening of the country's currency.
**Statement-II:** A hawkish approach involves raising interest rates, which makes borrowing less appealing for consumers, leading to lower domestic demand for goods and services and thereby controlling inflation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement-I is correct. The provided text explicitly mentions that under a Hawkish Monetary Policy Stance, 'Interest rate increases might also lead the country’s currency to strengthen.' Statement-II is also correct. The text explains that in a hawkish approach, high interest rates make borrowing less appealing, which reduces domestic demand for goods and services, and as a result, prices tend to stabilize, controlling inflation. However, Statement-II explains the mechanism for controlling domestic inflation, not the mechanism for currency appreciation. Currency appreciation in this context is typically caused by higher interest rates attracting foreign capital inflows, which increases demand for the domestic currency. Since Statement-II does not explain this capital flow mechanism, it is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
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TextbookHard
Q13.Consider the following statements regarding the regulation of financial institutions in India:
1. The National Housing Bank (NHB) is regulated by the Ministry of Finance, as it is now fully owned by the Government of India.
2. All Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India fall under the regulatory purview of the Reserve Bank of India.
3. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are supervised by NABARD but must also adhere to the regulatory norms prescribed by the RBI.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. While the NHB is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance and is 100% owned by the Government of India, the provided text explicitly states that 'NHB is regulated by RBI'.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The text clearly states, 'Not all NBFCs are regulated by RBI.' It provides examples such as Venture Capital Funds regulated by SEBI and Insurance Companies regulated by IRDA.
Statement 3 is correct. The text mentions that 'The RRBs are supervised by NABARD and have to follow the regulatory norms prescribed by RBI.' Therefore, only one statement is correct.
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TextbookHard
Q14.With reference to Differentiated Banks in India, consider the following statements:
1. Payments Banks are permitted to provide loans and issue credit cards, but their area of operation is restricted.
2. Small Finance Banks are mandated to invest at least 75% of their 'demand deposit balances' in SLR-eligible Government Securities.
3. Both Small Finance Banks and Payments Banks are permitted to accept demand deposits from their customers.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The text specifies that Payments Banks are 'unable to provide loans or credit cards'. The ability to provide loans is a feature of Small Finance Banks.
Statement 2 is incorrect. This statement swaps the rules. The requirement to invest 'at least 75% of its ‘demand deposit balances’ in SLR eligible G-Secs/Treasury Bills' applies to Payments Banks, not Small Finance Banks. The corresponding rule for Small Finance Banks is that '75% of their loan portfolio is to be for priority sector lending'.
Statement 3 is correct. The text indicates that Small Finance Banks can accept all types of deposits, which includes demand deposits. It also states that Payments Banks 'shall primarily accept demand deposits'. Thus, the statement is correct for both.
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TextbookHard
Q15.Consider the following two statements:
Statement-I: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) no longer holds any ownership stake in either the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) or the National Housing Bank (NHB).
Statement-II: A key recommendation from the Narasimham panel was that the central bank should not own the entities that it is also tasked with regulating, to avoid a conflict of interest.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement-I is correct. The text explicitly mentions that in 2019, the RBI sold its stake in both NABARD and NHB to the Government of India, making the GoI the 100% owner. Statement-II is also correct. The text states that the sale of RBI's stake in NHB was 'based on the recommendations of the Narasimham panel, which stated that RBI should not own entities that are regulated by it.' Since NHB is regulated by the RBI, this principle provides the direct rationale for the action described in Statement-I regarding NHB, and the same logic applies to NABARD. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
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TextbookHard
Q16.Consider the following statements regarding Basel Norms:
1. The Basel-I accord introduced a three-pillared approach involving minimum capital requirements, supervisory review, and market discipline.
2. Basel-I norms focused exclusively on credit risk.
3. As per the Reserve Bank of India, Basel-III norms are required to be complied with by all commercial banks, including both scheduled and non-scheduled ones.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The three-pillared approach (Minimum capital requirement, Supervisory review, Market discipline) was a feature of the Basel-II norms, not Basel-I. Basel-I primarily focused on a minimum capital requirement. Statement 2 is correct. The Basel-I framework, introduced in 1988, focused only on credit risk. Subsequent norms like Basel-II expanded this to include operational and market risks. Statement 3 is correct. The RBI has mandated that Basel-III norms are to be complied with by all commercial banks, which encompasses both scheduled and non-scheduled banks.
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TextbookHard
Q17.Consider the following two statements:
Statement-I: The Countercyclical Capital Buffer (CCCB) is a mandatory capital requirement that banks must accumulate during periods of economic downturn to safeguard against rising systemic risks.
Statement-II: The CCCB framework allows banks to use the accumulated capital during periods of stress to cover losses and continue lending, thereby counteracting distress economic conditions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement-I is incorrect. The Countercyclical Capital Buffer is accumulated during periods of rapid loan expansion or an economic boom, not during a downturn. The purpose is to build reserves in good times to be used in bad times. Statement-II is correct. It accurately describes the purpose of the buffer: the capital accumulated during the boom phase can be released during periods of economic stress. This allows banks to absorb losses and maintain the flow of credit to the real economy when it is most needed.
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TextbookHard
Q18.With reference to the components of bank capital, consider the following statements:
1. Tier-I capital is primarily composed of subordinate debt and revaluation reserves.
2. Tier-II capital, also known as core capital, mainly consists of share capital and disclosed reserves.
3. The loss absorption capacity of Tier-I capital is less than that of Tier-II capital.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. It describes the components of Tier-II capital (Subordinate Debt, Revaluation Reserve, etc.), not Tier-I. Tier-I capital consists of core capital like share capital and disclosed reserves. Statement 2 is incorrect. It swaps the definitions. Tier-I capital is known as core capital, which is the highest quality capital. Tier-II is supplementary capital. Statement 3 is incorrect. Tier-I capital is the highest quality capital and is fully available to cover losses, meaning its loss absorption capacity is greater than that of Tier-II capital. The text explicitly states that the debt absorption capacity of Tier-II capital is less than Tier-I capital.
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TextbookMedium
Q19.Consider the following statements regarding the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020:
1. The Act brought all categories of co-operative societies and banks under the same supervisory process of the RBI as applicable to Scheduled Commercial Banks.
2. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) are explicitly excluded from the provisions of the amended Act.
3. The impetus for bringing Urban Co-operative Banks under stricter RBI supervision was linked to financial irregularities observed in institutions like the Punjab and Maharashtra Co-operative (PMC) Bank.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The statement uses the extreme word 'all'. The Act does not apply to all categories of co-operative societies. It explicitly excludes Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) and co-operative societies whose principal business is long-term financing for agricultural development. Statement 2 is correct. The amended Act specifically does not apply to Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS). Statement 3 is correct. The move to bring Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs) under closer RBI supervision was a direct policy response to instances of fraud and financial irregularities, with the crisis at the Punjab and Maharashtra Co-operative (PMC) Bank being a major trigger.
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TextbookHard
Q20.With reference to the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), consider the following statements:
1. It was established as a statutory body by the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
2. It is an initiative solely of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to operate retail payment systems.
3. It operates as a 'For-Profit' company to foster competition in the digital payments landscape.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. NPCI was formed as a ‘Not for Profit’ company under Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956. While it is an initiative under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, it is not a statutory body created by the Act itself. Statement 2 is incorrect. NPCI is an initiative of both the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA). Statement 3 is incorrect. The text explicitly states that NPCI was formed as a ‘Not for Profit’ company. Therefore, none of the statements are correct.
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TextbookMedium
Q21.Consider the following statements regarding cheques:
1. A Crossed Cheque can be encashed at the cash counter of a bank, whereas an Open Cheque can only be credited to the payee's account.
2. An Antedated Cheque bears a future date and cannot be honoured earlier than that date.
3. A Stale Cheque is one that is presented for payment after 3 months from its date of issue and is not honoured by the bank.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The definitions have been swapped. A Crossed Cheque cannot be encashed at the cash counter and can only be credited to the payee’s account. An Open Cheque (or uncrossed cheque) can be encashed at the counter of the bank. Statement 2 is incorrect. This is the definition of a Post-Dated Cheque. An Antedated Cheque is one that bears a date earlier than the date on which it is presented to the bank. Statement 3 is correct. A cheque presented for payment after 3 months from its date is considered a stale cheque and is not honoured by the bank. Therefore, only one statement is correct.
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TextbookHard
Q22.Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The BHIM App, developed by NPCI, functions differently from digital wallets as it does not hold money itself but facilitates direct bank-to-bank transfers.
Statement-II: The BHIM App is built upon the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) infrastructure, which allows for real-time inter-bank electronic fund transfers.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement-I is correct. The provided text explicitly states that the BHIM App 'does not ‘hold’ money like other digital wallets'. It is based on UPI, which allows money transfer between any two bank accounts. Statement-II is also correct. The text mentions that UPI, on which BHIM is based, is 'built over IMPS (Immediate Payment Service)'. Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I because the ability of BHIM to facilitate direct, real-time bank-to-bank transfers without holding funds is enabled by its underlying IMPS architecture, which is designed for such immediate inter-bank transactions.
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TextbookMedium
Q23.Consider the following pairs:
Type of ATM : Primary Function
1. White Label ATM : Hardware and lease owned by a service provider, but cash management by a sponsor bank.
2. Green Label ATM : Set up for facilitating e-commerce transactions.
3. Brown Label ATM : Set up, owned, and operated entirely by non-bank entities.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation: Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. The description provided is for a Brown Label ATM. White Label ATMs (WLAs) are set up, owned, and operated by non-banks. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Green Label ATMs are available for agricultural transactions. ATMs set up for e-commerce are Yellow Label ATMs. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The description provided is for a White Label ATM. Brown Label ATMs are those where hardware and lease are owned by a service provider, but cash management and network connectivity are provided by a sponsor bank. Therefore, none of the pairs are correctly matched.
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TextbookHard
Q24.Consider the following statements regarding asset classification in the Indian banking system:
1. A loan is classified as a Non-Performing Asset (NPA) if interest or principal remains overdue for a period of 60 days or more.
2. An NPA that has aged for more than 12 months is categorized as a sub-standard asset.
3. The term 'Stressed Assets' encompasses Non-Performing Assets and Restructured loans, but excludes assets that have been written-off.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. A loan is classified as a Non-Performing Asset (NPA) if the interest or principal amount remains overdue for a period of 90 days or more, not 60 days. Statement 2 is incorrect. An asset is classified as a sub-standard asset if it has remained an NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months. If it remains an NPA for more than 12 months, it is categorized as a doubtful asset. Statement 3 is incorrect. Stressed assets are a combination of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs), Restructured loans, and Written-off assets. The statement incorrectly excludes written-off assets from this definition. Therefore, none of the statements are correct.
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TextbookHard
Q25.Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: A sustained high level of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) in the banking sector is generally associated with a reduction in the country's economic growth rate.
Statement-II: High NPAs lead to a crisis of confidence, causing interest rates to fall, which subsequently discourages investment in new industrial projects.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement-I is correct. A sustained high level of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) signifies stress in the banking sector. This erodes the capital base of banks, reduces their profitability, and makes them more risk-averse. Consequently, banks' capacity and willingness to extend new loans for productive activities diminish. This credit crunch hampers investment and consumption, leading to a slowdown in the country's overall economic growth rate.
Statement-II is incorrect. The statement presents a flawed causal relationship. While high NPAs can lead to a crisis of confidence, this typically causes interest rates to *rise*, not fall, as banks increase lending rates to cover higher perceived risks and provisioning costs. Furthermore, the statement incorrectly claims that falling interest rates would discourage investment; in reality, lower interest rates generally stimulate investment by reducing the cost of borrowing. Therefore, the premise (falling rates) and the subsequent logic are both incorrect.
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TextbookMedium
Q26.With reference to the measurement of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs), consider the following statements:
1. Gross NPA (GNPA) represents the actual loss incurred by a bank, as it is calculated after deducting provisions for unpaid debts.
2. Net NPA (NNPA) is the total defaulted amount before any provisions are set aside, and it primarily affects a bank's goodwill and equity value.
3. The Provisioning Coverage Ratio (PCR) is the ratio of a bank's total provisions to its Gross NPAs, indicating the extent of funds set aside to cover loan losses.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. This statement incorrectly defines Gross NPA; it actually describes Net NPA. Gross NPA is the total defaulted amount *before* deducting provisions. Statement 2 is incorrect. This statement incorrectly defines Net NPA; it actually describes Gross NPA. It is the GNPA that is the total defaulted amount before provisions and affects a bank's goodwill and equity value. Statement 3 is correct. The Provisioning Coverage Ratio (PCR) is defined as the ratio of provisioning to gross NPAs. It measures the percentage of bad assets for which a bank has kept aside funds to cover potential losses.
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TextbookHard
Q27.Consider the following statements regarding the framework for stressed asset resolution in India:
1. The SARFAESI Act, 2002, provided the legal framework for establishing a single, government-owned Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC).
2. The Prudential Framework for Resolution of Stressed Assets issued by the RBI in 2019 made the signing of an Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) by all lenders compulsory.
3. The concept of a 'Bad Bank' in India was first officially proposed by the Narasimham Committee in 1998.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The SARFAESI Act, 2002, created the legal framework for establishing *multiple private ARCs*, not a single government-owned one. Statement 2 is correct. The Prudential Framework of 2019 made the signing of an Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) by all lenders compulsory to ensure a majority decision-making criteria. Statement 3 is incorrect. The concept of a 'Bad Bank' was first mooted in India by the then Chief Economic Adviser Arvind Subramanian in 2017. The Narasimham Committee (1998) recommended setting up an ARC, which is a related but distinct concept from the specific 'Bad Bank' proposal of 2017.
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TextbookHard
Q28.With reference to India's efforts for financial inclusion, consider the following statements:
1. The Lead Bank for a particular district is decided by the respective State Government, which assigns the role to a bank with a significant rural branch network.
2. The Lead Bank Scheme is applicable exclusively to Public Sector Banks to coordinate credit flow to priority sectors.
3. A decision passed by the Banking Ombudsman is final and binding on both the bank and the complainant, with no provision for appeal.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The text explicitly states that 'The Lead Bank for every district is decided by RBI', not the State Government.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The text mentions that the Lead Bank Scheme involves assigning lead roles to individual banks 'both in the public sector and private sector', making the term 'exclusively' false.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The text clarifies that 'the order passed by the Banking Ombudsman is not binding on the parties, and they can file an appeal before an appellate authority', which contradicts the statement that the decision is final and binding.
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TextbookHard
Q29.Consider the following statements regarding Priority Sector Lending (PSL) in India:
1. Regional Rural Banks and Small Finance Banks are mandated to allocate 40% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) for Priority Sector Lending.
2. To incentivize lending to the priority sector, banks with a surplus in their PSL targets can sell Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs) to banks that have a shortfall.
3. Under the PSL framework, the 'Startup sector' and 'Export Credit' are recognized categories.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The text specifies that Regional Rural Banks and Small Finance Banks must allocate 75% of their ANBC for PSL. The 40% target applies to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Foreign Private Banks.
Statement 2 is correct. The text describes Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs) as a mechanism that 'incentivises banks with surplus PSL as it allows them to sell their excess achievement over targets' to banks with a shortfall.
Statement 3 is correct. The text provides a list of Priority Sector categories which includes 'Export Credit'. It also mentions that in 2020, the RBI assigned PSL status to India’s 'Startup sector'.
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TextbookHard
Q30.Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Account Aggregator (AA) network enables a regulated financial institution to access a user's detailed transaction data from another financial institution, but only with the user's explicit consent.
Statement-II: Unlike the Account Aggregator framework, systems like Aadhaar eKYC and CKYC are designed to share only a limited set of identity data fields and do not provide access to a user's transaction history or bank statements.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement-I is correct. The text defines an Account Aggregator as an entity that helps an individual 'securely and digitally access and share information' and explicitly states 'Data cannot be shared without the consent of the individual.' It also specifies that the AA network allows 'sharing of transaction data or bank statements'.
Statement-II is also correct. The text clarifies that 'Aadhaar eKYC and CKYC only allow sharing of four ‘identity’ data fields for KYC purposes (e.g. name, address, gender, etc.)' and contrasts this with the AA network's ability to share transaction data. Statement-II correctly explains the unique capability and significance of the Account Aggregator system (mentioned in Statement-I) by contrasting it with the limitations of pre-existing KYC data-sharing mechanisms.
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Current AffairsHard
Q31.Consider the following statements regarding the balance sheet and income of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
1. A significant portion of the RBI's assets is held in foreign currency assets and gold, with domestic assets forming a smaller share.
2. An appreciation of the Indian Rupee against major foreign currencies generally leads to valuation gains, increasing the RBI's surplus.
3. The RBI's income is primarily generated from interest on its holdings of government securities and returns on its foreign currency assets.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as foreign assets and gold constitute the majority of RBI's assets. Statement 2 is incorrect; rupee appreciation leads to valuation losses on foreign assets when measured in rupees, thus decreasing the surplus. Statement 3 is correct as interest from domestic and foreign securities are major income sources for the RBI.
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Current AffairsHard
Q32.With reference to the regulation of Co-operative Banks in India, consider the following statements:
1. Following recent amendments, all Co-operative Banks are now exclusively regulated by the Reserve Bank of India, ending the role of State Governments.
2. The RBI has the authority to approve the appointment of Chief Executive Officers (CEOs) for Urban Co-operative Banks.
3. The regulatory changes bringing Co-operative Banks under stricter RBI norms apply to both Urban and Multi-State Co-operative Banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; while RBI's powers are enhanced, it still consults with State Governments on certain matters like superseding a board. Statement 2 is correct as the RBI's prior permission is required for CEO appointments in these banks. Statement 3 is correct as the amendments' scope includes both Urban and Multi-State Co-operative Banks.
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Current AffairsHard
Q33.Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank of India's monetary policy operations:
Statement-I: A reduction in the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by the RBI is intended to increase the lendable resources available with commercial banks.
Statement-II: Such a reduction in the CRR is a primary tool used by the RBI when its monetary policy stance is 'withdrawal of accommodation'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement-I is correct as reducing CRR directly increases liquidity for banks to lend. Statement-II is incorrect because a 'withdrawal of accommodation' stance implies tightening monetary policy. A reduction in CRR is an accommodative or easing measure, which is contrary to this stance.
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Current AffairsHard
Q34.With reference to the regulatory framework for the amalgamation of Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs), consider the following statements:
1. The framework allows for amalgamation even if the bank being acquired has a negative net worth, provided depositor interests are protected.
2. In such a merger, the 'Amalgamating Bank' refers to the weaker UCB that is transferring its business to a stronger entity.
3. The power of the Reserve Bank of India to sanction a scheme of amalgamation for banking companies, including UCBs, is a recently introduced provision in the banking laws.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The regulatory framework for UCBs permits mergers even for banks with a negative net worth, subject to specific conditions aimed at protecting the interests of depositors, such as state government support or voluntary protection by the acquirer. Statement 2 is incorrect. The terminology is reversed. The 'Amalgamated Bank' is the weaker bank being acquired, while the 'Amalgamating Bank' is the stronger bank that acquires the business of the other. Statement 3 is incorrect. The RBI's power to approve amalgamation schemes is derived from foundational provisions within the Banking Regulation Act, which have existed for many decades. While recent legislative changes may have enhanced these powers, the authority itself is not a new creation.
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Current AffairsHard
Q35.Consider the following statements regarding the regulatory distinctions between Scheduled Commercial Banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India:
1. Unlike banks, NBFCs are statutorily barred from being part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves.
2. The deposit insurance facility of the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not available to depositors of any type of NBFC.
3. All NBFCs are exempt from maintaining reserve ratios such as the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. NBFCs cannot issue self-drawn cheques and are not direct members of the centralized payment systems. Statement 2 is correct. The DICGC insurance cover is exclusively for bank deposits and does not extend to deposits with NBFCs. Statement 3 is incorrect. While most NBFCs are exempt, the RBI has the authority to impose SLR requirements on certain categories of NBFCs, particularly those in the upper layer.
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Current AffairsHard
Q36.Consider the following statements regarding credit allocation policies in the Indian economy:
Statement-I: The Reserve Bank of India periodically revises Priority Sector Lending (PSL) guidelines to align credit flow with emerging national priorities and address regional disparities.
Statement-II: An expansion in the list of eligible activities under the PSL framework generally leads to a contraction of the overall credit supply in the economy.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement-I is correct. PSL norms are a key tool for the RBI to direct bank credit towards sectors important for socio-economic development. Statement-II is incorrect. Expanding the scope of PSL redirects credit allocation from non-priority to priority sectors; it does not inherently cause a contraction in the total credit supply available in the economy.
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Current AffairsHard
Q37.Consider the following statements regarding the macroeconomic implications of a reduction in the policy repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India:
1. It is intended to increase the cost of funds for commercial banks, thereby contracting credit supply.
2. It may lead to a depreciation of the domestic currency as returns on domestic investments become less attractive.
3. It generally results in an immediate and significant strengthening of the domestic currency against major foreign currencies.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. A repo rate cut reduces the cost of funds for banks, encouraging them to lend more and expanding credit supply. Statement 2 is correct. Lower interest rates can reduce returns for foreign investors, potentially leading to capital outflows and causing the domestic currency to depreciate. Statement 3 is incorrect as it is the opposite of statement 2; a rate cut typically leads to currency depreciation, not appreciation.
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Current AffairsMedium
Q38.With reference to the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India acts as the ex-officio Chairperson of the committee.
2. The committee is mandated to meet at least six times in a financial year to review monetary policy.
3. All members of the MPC, including those nominated by the Government of India, are appointed by the RBI Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Monetary Policy Committee. Statement 2 is incorrect. The statutory framework for the MPC mandates that it must meet at least four times in a year. Statement 3 is incorrect. The three external members of the committee are appointed by the Central Government and not by the RBI Governor.
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Current AffairsMedium
Q39.Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: A reduction in the policy repo rate by the central bank is often followed by commercial banks lowering their lending rates.
Statement-II: The policy repo rate is a quantitative monetary policy tool that acts as a benchmark for the cost of funds in the banking system.
Explanation: Statement-I correctly describes a key part of the monetary policy transmission mechanism. Statement-II is also correct, defining the repo rate's role. Statement-II provides the correct causal reason for Statement-I; because the repo rate is a benchmark for the cost of funds, a change in it directly influences banks' decisions on their own lending rates.
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Current AffairsHard
Q40.With reference to the recent performance of India's banking sector, consider the following statements: 1. Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPA) of Scheduled Commercial Banks as a percentage of gross advances have consistently increased. 2. The growth rate of credit to the industrial sector has decelerated in the recent past. 3. The gap between bank credit growth and deposit mobilisation has widened, indicating potential liquidity pressures. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; GNPA ratios have fallen to a multi-year low, reflecting improved asset quality. Statement 2 is incorrect; industrial credit growth has accelerated recently. Statement 3 is correct; faster credit growth than deposit growth has created a gap, posing liquidity challenges.
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Current AffairsHard
Q41.Consider the following statements regarding the role of the financial system in India: 1. The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a capital market instrument regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). 2. Banks act as intermediaries for corporate funding by linking businesses to capital markets for raising funds via instruments like Corporate Bonds. 3. The Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is a flagship scheme focused on providing universal health insurance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; UPI is a retail payment system overseen by RBI and operated by NPCI, not a SEBI-regulated capital market instrument. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect; PMJDY is for financial inclusion through bank accounts, while health insurance is covered under schemes like Ayushman Bharat.
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Current AffairsHard
Q42.Statement-I: The State Bank of India is not included in the list of 'Nationalised Banks' that were nationalised in 1969 and 1980.
Statement-II: The Government of India holds a minority stake in the State Bank of India since its inception.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement-I is correct; SBI has a separate status as it was created under the SBI Act, 1955, and was not part of the mass nationalisation events. Statement-II is incorrect; the Government of India holds a majority stake (over 50%) in the State Bank of India.
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Current AffairsHard
Q43.Consider the following statements regarding the management of bad loans by commercial banks:
Statement-I: A loan 'write-off' by a bank legally extinguishes the borrower's obligation to repay the outstanding debt.
Statement-II: Writing off non-performing loans helps a bank clean its balance sheet and may offer tax advantages, even while the option to recover the amount remains.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement-I is incorrect. A loan 'write-off' is an internal accounting practice where the bank removes the bad loan from its active asset book; however, the bank's legal right to recover the debt from the borrower persists. The action described is a 'loan waiver', not a write-off. Statement-II is correct. By removing the NPA from the balance sheet, the bank's financial health appears better, and it can claim tax benefits on the amount provisioned for the bad loan, while continuing recovery efforts.
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Current AffairsHard
Q44.With reference to the stability of the microfinance sector in India, consider the following statements:
1. The weakening of the Joint Liability Group (JLG) model has been a contributing factor to rising stress in the sector.
2. Over-leveraging of borrowers, often through multiple loans from different lenders, has increased the probability of defaults.
3. Stricter prudential lending norms by the Reserve Bank of India have uniformly led to an immediate decrease in NPAs for all Microfinance Institutions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; the JLG model's effectiveness relies on group cohesion, which has been weakening, thus increasing stress. Statement 2 is correct; when borrowers are over-leveraged, their capacity to repay all lenders diminishes, leading to higher defaults. Statement 3 is incorrect; while stricter RBI norms aim for long-term stability, they can cause short-term liquidity crunches and operational challenges for MFIs, which may temporarily increase stress before reducing NPAs.
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Current AffairsMedium
Q45.With reference to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) of India, consider the following statements:
1. The Code provides a framework for the insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms, and individuals.
2. A primary objective of the Code is to maximize the value of assets of the corporate debtor.
3. A resolution plan approved by the Committee of Creditors is final and binding on all stakeholders without further judicial approval.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as the IBC's scope extends to corporates, partnerships, and individuals, although implementation has been phased. Statement 2 is correct; maximizing asset value is a key stated goal of the IBC to ensure better recovery for creditors. Statement 3 is incorrect because a resolution plan, even after approval by the Committee of Creditors, must be submitted to and approved by the Adjudicating Authority (the NCLT) to become legally binding.
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Current AffairsHard
Q46.With reference to the Lead Bank Scheme, consider the following statements:
1. Only public sector banks are designated as Lead Banks for district credit.
2. Its primary objective is enhancing credit flow to the priority sectors.
3. It is based on the Service Area Approach for SCBs and RRBs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; both public sector and private sector banks can be designated as Lead Banks. Statement 2 is correct as the scheme aims to coordinate efforts to increase credit flow to priority sectors. Statement 3 is correct as the scheme is based on the Service Area Approach applicable to SCBs and RRBs.
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Current AffairsHard
Q47.Consider the following statements regarding the key components and objectives of financial inclusion in India:
1. Financial literacy primarily involves the establishment of physical banking outlets in underserved areas.
2. The C. Rangarajan Committee defined financial inclusion as ensuring access to credit at market-driven rates.
3. Active usage of financial services, beyond mere account opening, is a critical measure of successful inclusion.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; it describes 'access to financial services', not financial literacy. Statement 2 is incorrect as the committee's definition emphasizes 'affordable cost', not market-driven rates. Statement 3 is correct, as usage is a key indicator of effective financial inclusion beyond just access.
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Current AffairsHard
Q48.Consider the following statements regarding digital banking and financial inclusion:
Statement-I: The proliferation of Digital Banking Units (DBUs) primarily aims to replace the need for financial literacy initiatives.
Statement-II: Expanding digital financial services is a key strategy to overcome challenges of last-mile connectivity and improve the usage of financial products.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement-I is incorrect; DBUs are intended to improve digital access and experience, but they actually increase the need for financial literacy, not replace it. Statement-II is correct as digital services are crucial for enhancing both access and usage, which are core tenets of financial inclusion.
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Current AffairsHard
Q49.With reference to the microfinance sector in India, consider the following statements:
1. All entities engaged in microfinance, including Self-Help Groups, are regulated as NBFC-MFIs by the Reserve Bank of India.
2. The Joint Lending Group (JLG) model, a common practice for MFIs, operates on the principle of individual-only loan liability.
3. Microfinance aims to enhance financial inclusion by providing small loans to low-income households to foster self-sufficiency and economic empowerment.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. While the RBI regulates NBFC-MFIs, Self-Help Groups (SHGs) are informal groups and are not directly regulated under this framework. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Joint Lending Group (JLG) model is based on the principle of joint liability, where members mutually guarantee loan repayment. Statement 3 is correct. The core objective of microfinance is to foster financial inclusion and self-sufficiency among low-income populations.
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