Question 1

With reference to the legal framework for environmental protection in India, consider the following statements:
1. Provisions for environmental protection were incorporated into the Constitution of India through the 42nd Amendment, prior to the UN Conference on Human Environment in Stockholm.
2. Article 48-A of the Constitution establishes a fundamental duty upon every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment.
3. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 was enacted subsequent to the passage of the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.

Accepted Answer

None. Statement 1 is incorrect. The UN Conference in Stockholm was held in 1972. The provisions for environmental protection were added to the Constitution via the 42nd Amendment in 1976, which is after the conference. Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 48-A is a Directive Principle of State Policy, which directs the 'State' to protect the environment. The fundamental duty for every 'citizen' is provided under Article 51-A (g). Statement 3 is incorrect. The Wildlife (Protection) Act was passed in 1972, while the Forest (Conservation) Act was passed in 1980. Therefore, the Wildlife Act preceded the Forest Act.

Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding the legislative context of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972:
1. At the time of its enactment, 'Wildlife' was a subject in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule, granting Parliament exclusive power to legislate on it.
2. The Act's provisions were mandatorily applicable to all States of the Indian Union, including Jammu and Kashmir, from its inception.
3. A primary rationale for the Act was that the preceding Wild Birds and Animals Protection Act, 1935 had become outdated.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. When the Act was passed in 1972, 'Forest' including 'Wildlife' was a State subject, falling under Entry 20 of List II. Parliament did not have direct or exclusive power. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act was adopted by all states except for Jammu and Kashmir, which had its own similar legislation. Statement 3 is correct. The Statement of Objects and Reasons for the 1972 Act explicitly mentions that the Wild Birds and Animals Protection Act, 1935 had become completely outdated, necessitating new legislation.

Question 3

With reference to the salient features of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, consider the following statements:
1. The Act, in its original 1972 form, included Schedule VI specifically for the protection of specified plant species.
2. The hierarchy of Schedules I to V is determined by the commercial value of the wildlife products derived from the enlisted animals.
3. Animals listed in Schedule I are provided with total protection from hunting.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. Schedule VI, which deals with specified plant species, was added to the Act through the amendment of 1991, not in the original 1972 legislation. Statement 2 is incorrect. The rating of Schedules I to V is based on the risk of survival of the wildlife species, not their commercial or economic value. Statement 3 is correct. Animals included in Schedule I are afforded the highest level of legal protection, which includes total protection from hunting, and trade related to such animals is strictly regulated.

Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding the objectives of Project Elephant:

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect. The 'grow and release' or 'rear and release' technique is mentioned in the context of rebuilding crocodilian populations, not as an objective of Project Elephant. Statement 2 is correct. Addressing issues of man-animal conflict is explicitly listed as an objective of the project. Statement 3 is correct. The welfare of domesticated elephants is also included as one of the project's objectives.

Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding Elephant Corridors in India:

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The least fragmentation of elephant habitat was noted in south India. The most severe fragmentation occurred in northern West Bengal. Statement 2 is correct. Nationally, only 24 per cent of the corridors are under complete forest cover. Statement 3 is incorrect. In central India, only 10 per cent of corridors are completely under forest area, while 90 per cent are jointly under forest, agriculture, and settlements.

Question 6

With reference to the administrative framework of Project Elephant, consider the following statements:

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. Project Elephant was launched as a centrally sponsored scheme, not a Central Sector Scheme. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the project is mainly implemented in 13 States/UTs, small support is also given to other states like Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh. Statement 3 is correct. A new division named 'Project Tiger and Elephant Division' was created under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change by merging the Project Tiger and Project Elephant divisions.

Question 7

With reference to vulture species in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Red-headed Vulture and the Egyptian Vulture are both listed as Critically Endangered.
2. The initial decline of vulture populations in India was officially recorded at Keoladeo Ghana National Park.
3. The populations of the Oriental White-backed Vulture, Slender-billed Vulture, and Long-billed Vulture have remained stable over the last decade due to conservation efforts.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Red-headed Vulture is listed as Critically Endangered, but the Egyptian Vulture is classified as Endangered. Statement 2 is correct. The decline of vulture populations in India was first recorded at the Keoladeo Ghana National Park in Rajasthan. Statement 3 is incorrect. The population of three species, i.e., White-backed Vulture, Slender-billed Vulture, and Long-billed Vulture, has declined drastically over the past decade. Therefore, only one statement is correct.

Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding the impact of Diclofenac on vultures:

Statement I: The widespread veterinary use of Diclofenac on livestock led to a catastrophic decline in vulture populations in India.

Statement II: Diclofenac is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that causes renal failure in vultures, leading to visceral gout.

Statement III: Vultures exhibit a distinct behavioral symptom known as 'neck drooping' for several weeks, which is the only definitive indication of Diclofenac poisoning.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement III is incorrect.. Statement I is correct; the decline in vulture population was confirmed to be due to the drug diclofenac. Statement II is also correct; diclofenac is an NSAID that vultures cannot break down, leading to renal failure and visceral gout (accumulation of uric acid). Statement III is incorrect. While 'neck drooping' is an obvious behavioural indication that a bird is ill, the text specifies that it is also reported in healthy birds under hot conditions, meaning it is not a definitive or exclusive sign of poisoning. Therefore, Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement III is not.

Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding vulture conservation measures in India:
1. The Indian Government's 2006 ban on veterinary diclofenac was largely ineffective because human formulations of the drug, being cheaper than alternatives, continued to be used for cattle.
2. Meloxicam, a recommended alternative to diclofenac, is a type of steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that has been proven safe for vultures.
3. The Vulture Safety Zone (VSZ) concept, which aims to create a 150 km radius of targeted awareness around vulture colonies, is an initiative unique to the Indian subcontinent.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is correct. The ban on veterinary diclofenac did not stop the practice, as human forms of the drug were used to treat sick cattle, partly because they were cheaper than alternatives like meloxicam. Statement 2 is incorrect. Meloxicam is identified as a second-generation non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), not a steroidal one. Statement 3 is incorrect. The concept of a Vulture Safety Zone (VSZ) is described as unique for the Asian continent, but the text explicitly states that similar VSZs are in operation in both Europe and Africa, meaning the concept itself is not unique to India. Therefore, only one statement is correct.

Question 10

With reference to the measures taken by the Government to prevent the menace of wild animals' entry into human habitats, consider the following statements:
1. Financial assistance is provided to State Governments under Centrally Sponsored Schemes to augment food and water availability within forests.
2. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, empowers the Chief Wildlife Wardens of the States to permit hunting of any problematic animal.
3. The development of infrastructure for the tranquilization and relocation of problematic animals is a permissible activity for receiving Central assistance.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

All three. Statement 1 is correct. Financial assistance is provided under schemes like 'Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats' to improve forest areas and augment food and water, thereby reducing the migration of animals. Statement 2 is correct. The Chief Wildlife Wardens of the States/Union Territories are explicitly empowered under the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, to permit the hunting of problematic animals. Statement 3 is correct. Activities such as developing necessary infrastructure and support facilities for the immobilization of identified problematic animals through tranquilization and their subsequent relocation or rehabilitation are permissible under Central assistance.

Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding India's National Wildlife Action Plans (NWAP):
1. The third NWAP (2017-2031) is the first national plan to integrate mitigation and adaptation strategies for climate change into wildlife management planning.
2. The strategy of the third NWAP is founded on the premise that natural processes governed by ecosystems are critical for food production and human survival.
3. The third NWAP adopts a 'Protected Area-centric' approach, focusing conservation efforts primarily on species within designated national parks and sanctuaries.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct. The third National Wildlife Action Plan is noteworthy as it is the first time India has acknowledged the concerns about climate change's impact on wildlife and emphasized including mitigation and adaptation activities in management planning. Statement 2 is correct. The strategy is founded on the assumption that ecosystem-governed natural processes are critical for food production, health, and other elements of human survival and sustainable development. Statement 3 is incorrect. The plan takes a 'landscape approach' to the conservation of all species, regardless of where they exist, not a 'Protected Area-centric' one.

Question 12

With reference to the strategy for action outlined in the National Wildlife Action Plan (2017-2031), consider the following statements:
1. The plan's habitat protection mandate is limited to terrestrial and inland aquatic ecosystems.
2. The plan highlights the preservation of genetic variation and sustainable use of species as critical for scientific advancement and supporting rural populations.
3. The plan underlines that national planning has, for the most part, successfully integrated and addressed the detrimental ecological repercussions of development on wilderness areas.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The plan prioritizes the recovery of vulnerable wildlife species while protecting their habitats, which include terrestrial, inland aquatic, coastal, and marine ecosystems, not just terrestrial and inland aquatic ones. Statement 2 is correct. The strategy highlights two additional elements: the preservation of genetic variation and the sustainable use of species and ecosystems, which have a direct impact on scientific progress and the support of millions of rural populations. Statement 3 is incorrect. The plan emphasizes the exact opposite, stating that national planning has not taken seriously the detrimental ecological repercussions of population, commerce, and development pressures on wilderness regions.

Question 13

With reference to the sea turtles found in Indian coastal waters, consider the following statements:
1. All five species of sea turtles found in Indian coastal waters use the Indian coastline for nesting.
2. The Loggerhead sea turtle is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
3. The invasion of Ipomoea and the establishment of Casuarina plantations are classified as offshore threats to sea turtles.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. Of the five species of sea turtles found in Indian coastal waters, four species nest along the Indian coastline. The Loggerhead turtle is the exception and does not nest there. Statement 2 is correct. The Loggerhead and Leatherback sea turtles are protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement 3 is incorrect. The invasion of Ipomoea and Casuarina plantations are listed as onshore threats that lead to the loss of nesting beaches.

Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding the Sea Turtle Conservation Project initiated in 1999:
1. The project was implemented by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) with the Ministry of Environment & Forests acting as a collaborating agency.
2. A key achievement of the project was the mandatory legal enforcement of Turtle Exclusion Devices (TEDs) in all fishing trawlers across 10 coastal states.
3. The project successfully used Satellite Telemetry to identify the migratory routes of Olive Ridley Turtles.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Ministry of Environment & Forests initiated the project in collaboration with UNDP, but the Wildlife Institute of India, Dehradun was the Implementing Agency. Statement 2 is incorrect. The project's achievement was the demonstration of Satellite Telemetry and 'sensitizing' fishermen and State Governments for the use of Turtle Exclusion Devices (TEDs), not their mandatory legal enforcement. Statement 3 is correct. The project demonstrated the use of Satellite Telemetry to locate the migratory route of Olive Ridley Turtles in the sea.

Question 15

Consider the following pairs regarding threats to sea turtles in India:
1. Light Pollution : Offshore threat
2. Fibropapillomatosis : Onshore threat
3. Bycatch in fishing nets : Offshore threat
4. Sand mining : Onshore threat
How many of the pairs above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Light pollution is listed as an onshore threat related to coastal development and tourism. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Fibropapillomatosis, a disease caused by water pollution, is classified as an offshore threat. Pair 3 is correctly matched. Bycatch due to near shore fishing, trawling, and gill netting is a fishing-related mortality classified as an offshore threat. Pair 4 is correctly matched. Sand mining is an anthropogenic cause of nesting beach loss, which is an onshore threat. Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding DNA barcoding and associated international programs:
1. The Planetary Biodiversity Mission, set to be completed by 2045, aims to deliver DNA barcode coverage for 2 million species.
2. The International Barcode of Life (iBOL) is a Canadian not-for-profit research alliance with which the Zoological Survey of India has signed a Memorandum of Understanding.
3. BIOSCAN, launched in 2019, is intended to be completed by 2045 and will serve as the foundation for the Planetary Biodiversity Mission.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The goal of delivering DNA barcode coverage for 2 million species belongs to the BIOSCAN program, not the Planetary Biodiversity Mission. The Planetary Biodiversity Mission's goal is to complete the census of all multicellular species. Statement 2 is correct. The text specifies that a MoU was signed between the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) and the International Barcode of Life (iBOL), which is identified as a Canadian not-for-profit corporation and a research alliance. Statement 3 is incorrect. BIOSCAN is intended to be completed by 2026, not 2045. The Planetary Biodiversity Mission is scheduled for completion by 2045.

Question 17

With reference to captive breeding as a conservation method, consider the following statements:
1. It is primarily utilized when a species' wild habitat is of high quality and unfragmented to ensure successful reintroduction.
2. A key objective is to provide opportunities for genetic mixing, particularly when existing wild habitats are fragmented.
3. The reintroduction of captive-bred animals into their natural habitat is explicitly excluded from the scope of captive breeding programs.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. Captive breeding is employed in critical situations, such as when a population has dropped dangerously, when existing habitat is of poor quality, or when it is fragmented. It is not a method for situations with high-quality, unfragmented habitat. Statement 2 is correct. When habitat is fragmented, captive breeding combined with management can provide opportunities for genetic mixing, which may be the only hope for a species' survival. Statement 3 is incorrect. Reintroduction is a potential and important phase of captive breeding programs. The process may involve reintroduction or reestablishment in the natural habitat if the situation demands it.

Question 18

Consider the following pairs:
Program : Primary Goal
1. BARCODE 500K : Deliver DNA barcode coverage for 2 million species.
2. BIOSCAN : Establish a global biosurveillance program.
3. Planetary Biodiversity Mission : Construct a 'library of life' by preserving DNA extracts from all species.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only one pair. Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. The goal of BARCODE 500K was to deliver DNA barcode coverage for 0.5 million species. The goal of 2 million species belongs to BIOSCAN. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The goal to establish a global biosurveillance program is part of the Planetary Biodiversity Mission, not BIOSCAN. Pair 3 is correctly matched. One of the stated goals of the Planetary Biodiversity Mission is to construct a 'library of life' by preserving DNA extracts from all species.

Question 19

With reference to the declaration and alteration of Protected Areas in India, consider the following statements:
1. The alteration of the boundaries of a Wildlife Sanctuary can be done by the State Government without any external recommendation.
2. After the final notification for a National Park is issued, new rights over the land can only be acquired through succession.
3. The Central Government is empowered to declare a Wildlife Sanctuary by notification if it is satisfied that the area holds adequate ecological significance.

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect. Any alteration of the boundaries of a sanctuary or a National Park requires a recommendation from the National Board for Wild Life. Statement 2 is correct. After the issue of a notification for declaration of a Protected Area, no right can be acquired over the land within the specified limits, except by succession, testamentary or intestate. Statement 3 is correct. The Central Government may declare a sanctuary or National Park by notification if it is satisfied that the area is of adequate ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, and natural significance.

Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding the distinctions between National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972:
1. The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, specifies the difference in conservation value between a National Park and a Wildlife Sanctuary.
2. Activities such as grazing of livestock are prohibited in Wildlife Sanctuaries but are regulated in National Parks.
3. A National Park is often created to protect a particular species, whereas a Wildlife Sanctuary is not primarily focused on a single species.

Accepted Answer

None. Statement 1 is incorrect. The difference in conservation value of a National Park from that of a sanctuary is not specified in the WPA 1972. Statement 2 is incorrect. The relationship is reversed; certain activities like grazing of livestock are regulated in sanctuaries but are prohibited in National Parks, which enjoy a greater degree of protection. Statement 3 is incorrect. A wildlife sanctuary can be created for a particular species, whereas a national park is not primarily focused on a particular species.

Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding the legal procedures for Protected Areas:
1. When declaring a sanctuary that includes territorial waters, the State Government must consult the Chief Naval Hydrographer of the Central Government.
2. The 'Collector' appointed under the Act is responsible for making alternative arrangements for fuel and fodder for persons affected by the declaration of a sanctuary.
3. The provision to include territorial waters within a sanctuary was part of the original Wild Life (Protection) Act of 1972.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is correct. In cases where territorial waters are included in a protected area, the limits are determined in consultation with the Chief Naval Hydrographer of the Central Government. Statement 2 is incorrect. The State Government, not the Collector, is responsible for making alternative arrangements for fuel, fodder, and other forest produce. The Collector's role is to inquire into and determine the extent of existing rights. Statement 3 is incorrect. The inclusion of territorial waters in areas to be declared as sanctuaries was a provision added by the Amendment Act of 1991, not the original 1972 Act.

Question 22

With reference to Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) in India, consider the following statements:
1. Category-I MPAs are islands which have major parts in the marine ecosystem and some part in the terrestrial ecosystem.
2. Category-IIIA MPAs consist of sandy beaches situated beyond the intertidal line.
3. Evergreen or semi-evergreen forests of islands are classified under Category-IIIB MPAs.

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect. Category-I MPAs cover areas entirely in intertidal/sub-tidal zones, such as mangroves, coral reefs, and estuaries. It is Category-II MPAs that include islands with both marine and terrestrial ecosystem parts. Statement 2 is correct. Category-IIIA includes sandy beaches beyond the intertidal line that have occasional interaction with seawater. Statement 3 is correct. Category-IIIB specifically includes the evergreen or semi-evergreen forests found on islands.

Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding Sacred Groves in India:
1. The protection of these groves is primarily driven by local community beliefs and traditional rituals dedicated to folk deities.
2. The Garo and Khasi tribes of northeastern India permit the collection of fallen deadwood and dried leaves from their sacred groves.
3. The vegetation cover in sacred groves aids in soil conservation and the recharge of aquifers.

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Sacred groves are protected by local communities due to their religious beliefs and rituals. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Garo and the Khasi tribes completely prohibit any human interference in their sacred groves. It is other communities, such as the Gonds of central India, who may allow the use of fallen parts while prohibiting the cutting of live trees. Statement 3 is correct. The ecological significance of sacred groves includes preventing soil erosion and helping recharge aquifers through their vegetative cover and association with water bodies.

Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding threats to conservation areas in India:
1. The African catfish, an invasive species, is a significant threat being eradicated in the sacred groves of the Western Ghats.
2. Invasion by exotic weeds such as Lantana camara is a recognized threat to the biodiversity of some sacred groves.
3. The total area of Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) in India constitutes less than 5% of the total area of all Protected Areas in the country.

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect. Special measures to eradicate the invasive African catfish (Mangur) are being initiated in the Keoladeo National Park, not in the sacred groves of the Western Ghats. Statement 2 is correct. The invasion by exotic weeds, specifically mentioning Eupatorium odoratum, Lantana camara, and Prosopis juliflora, is cited as a serious threat to some sacred groves. Statement 3 is correct. The Marine Protected Areas cover less than 4.01% of the total area of all Protected Areas of India, which is indeed less than 5%.

Question 25

With reference to India's export prohibition policies for flora and fauna, consider the following statements:

1. The export of finished handicraft products made from sandalwood is prohibited.
2. The export of meat from both male and female buffalo is prohibited.
3. Handicrafts and articles made from Peacock Tail Feathers are prohibited for export.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect. The export prohibition on sandalwood explicitly excludes finished handicraft products of sandalwood, machine finished sandalwood products, and sandalwood oil. Statement 2 is correct. The list of prohibited items includes 'Meat of buffalo (both male and female) fresh and chilled and frozen'. Statement 3 is correct. The prohibited items list includes 'Peacock Tail Feathers & its Handicrafts and articles', making their export prohibited.

Question 26

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Marine Mega Fauna Stranding Guidelines':

1. The primary role of a first responder in a marine stranding event is to ascertain the cause of death.
2. The guidelines aim to improve coordination between government entities and civil society organizations.
3. A basic marine stranding network, as defined by the guidelines, is composed of personnel including veterinarians and marine police.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect. The role of a first responder is to keep a live animal comfortable or prevent a dead one from being washed away, and to assist scientists and veterinarians. Ascertaining the cause of death is a broader function of the entire network, not the primary role of the first responder. Statement 2 is correct. The guidelines aim to improve coordination between various independent governments and civil societies. Statement 3 is correct. The guidelines specify that a basic marine stranding network consists of first responders, forest guards, divisional forest officers, government officials, veterinarians, and marine police.

Question 27

Consider the following pairs with respect to India's export prohibition policy:

Item : Export Status
1. Value added products of Red Sanders wood : Permitted
2. Machine finished sandalwood products : Prohibited
3. Beef of calf : Prohibited

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only one pair. Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. The export policy explicitly prohibits 'Red Sanders wood, Value added products of Red Sanders'. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The prohibition on sandalwood has an exclusion for 'finished handicraft products of sandalwood, machine finished sandalwood products, sandalwood oil', making these items not prohibited. Pair 3 is correctly matched. The list of prohibited items includes 'Beef of cows, oxen and calf'. Therefore, only one pair is correctly matched.

Question 28

With reference to the Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme and Biosphere Reserves (BRs), consider the following statements:
1. The MAB programme is an Intergovernmental Scientific programme whose agenda is exclusively defined by its main governing body, the International Coordinating Council.
2. Biosphere Reserves are sites established and directly managed by UNESCO to promote sustainable development based on local community efforts.
3. The concept of Biosphere Reserves was refined by a Task Force of UNESCO's MAB Programme in 1974, and the BR network was formally launched in 1976.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The agenda of the MAB programme is defined by the International Coordinating Council in concertation with the broader MAB Community, not exclusively by the Council. Statement 2 is incorrect. Biosphere reserves are established by countries and are then recognized under UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme; they are not established or directly managed by UNESCO itself. Statement 3 is correct. The concept of Biosphere Reserves was refined by a Task Force of UNESCO's MAB Programme in 1974, and the BR network was formally launched in 1976. Therefore, only one statement is correct.

Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of Biosphere Reserves (BRs):
1. A primary characteristic of BRs is that people are considered an integral component of the system, not external to it.
2. BRs are exclusively designated in pristine, representative examples of natural biomes and do not include modified or degraded ecosystems.
3. The beneficiaries of a Biosphere Reserve are limited to the local people and the ecological resources within its boundaries.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is correct. A key feature of Biosphere Reserves is that people are treated as an integral component of the system. Statement 2 is incorrect. Biosphere Reserves can include examples of modified or degraded ecosystems that are capable of being restored to more natural conditions; they are not limited to pristine areas. Statement 3 is incorrect. While local people and ecological resources are direct beneficiaries, the world community is considered an indirect beneficiary, particularly through the exchange of scientific information and conservation of global biodiversity. Therefore, only one statement is correct.

Question 30

Consider the following statements regarding the timeline and initiation of biosphere reserve programmes:
1. The national Biosphere Reserve Programme of India was initiated in 1986, a decade after the formal launch of the global BR network.
2. The designation 'Biosphere Reserve' for natural areas was introduced by the International Co-ordinating Council (ICC) of UNESCO in 1971.
3. The Man and the Biosphere (MAB) programme was launched after the formal establishment of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves.

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct. India's national programme was initiated in 1986, while the global BR network was formally launched in 1976, which is exactly a decade earlier. Statement 2 is correct. The International Co-ordinating Council (ICC) of UNESCO introduced the designation 'Biosphere Reserve' in November, 1971. Statement 3 is incorrect. The MAB programme was launched in the early 1970s, and it is the parent programme under which the World Network of Biosphere Reserves was later formally launched in 1976. Therefore, the programme was launched before the network. Consequently, only two statements are correct.

Question 31

Consider the following statements regarding the criteria for a region to be designated as a Biodiversity Hotspot: 
1. The region must contain at least 1,500 species of terrestrial vertebrates as endemics.
2. The region must have lost at least 70% of its original habitat.
3. The concept was formally established by the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO).

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The species endemism criterion requires a region to contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics, not terrestrial vertebrates. Statement 2 is correct. The degree of threat criterion requires that the region has lost at least 70% of its original habitat. Statement 3 is incorrect. The biodiversity hotspot concept was put forth by Norman Myers in 1988, not by UNESCO.

Question 32

With reference to India's Biodiversity Hotspots, consider the following statements:
1. The Indo-Burma hotspot includes the area of North-Eastern India located north of the Brahmaputra river.
2. The Western Ghats hotspot is characterized by uniform rainfall patterns, leading to homogenous vegetation types.
3. The Eastern Himalayas hotspot is geologically old and shows minimal altitudinal variation.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

None. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indo-Burma hotspot includes North-Eastern India located south of the Brahmaputra river. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Western Ghats have a wide variation of rainfall patterns, which, coupled with complex geography, produces a great variety of vegetation types, not homogenous ones. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Eastern Himalayas region is geologically young and shows high altitudinal variation, rising from less than 500 meters to more than 8,000 meters.

Question 33

Consider the following statements regarding Biodiversity Coldspots:
1. They are areas with relatively high biological diversity experiencing a low rate of habitat loss.
2. A coldspot is never considered important for conservation due to its low species richness.
3. Extreme physical environments inhabited by one or two specially adapted species are examples of coldspots.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. Biodiversity coldspots are defined as areas with relatively low biological diversity that are experiencing a high rate of habitat loss. Statement 2 is incorrect. A coldspot can be important to conserve, especially if it is the only location where a rare species is found. Statement 3 is correct. Extreme environments with just one or two specially adapted species are considered coldspots that warrant conservation.

Question 34

With reference to the International Day for Biological Diversity (IDB), consider the following statements:
1. The United Nations initially designated 22 May as the IDB.
2. The date of 22 May was chosen to commemorate the date on which the Convention on Biological Diversity entered into force.
3. The decision to change the date of the IDB to 22 May was taken by the UN General Assembly.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The UN General Assembly initially designated 29 December as The International Day for Biological Diversity. Statement 2 is incorrect. The date of 22 May was adopted to commemorate the adoption of the text of the Convention on 22 May 1992. The date of 29 December was associated with the entry into force of the Convention. Statement 3 is correct. In December 2000, the UN General Assembly adopted 22 May as the IDB. Therefore, only one statement is correct.

Question 35

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The date for the observance of the International Day for Biological Diversity was changed from 29 December to 22 May.
Statement II: The change was made to align the observance with the anniversary of the adoption of the text of the Convention on Biological Diversity by the Nairobi Final Act.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I. Statement I is correct. The date for the International Day for Biological Diversity was indeed changed from the initial date of 29 December to 22 May. Statement II is also correct. The UN General Assembly adopted 22 May as the new date to commemorate the adoption of the text of the Convention on 22 May 1992 by the Nairobi Final Act. Statement II provides the precise reason for the action described in Statement I.

Question 36

Consider the following statements regarding international biodiversity initiatives:
1. The United Nations declared 2010 as the International Year of Biodiversity to celebrate life on earth and the value of biodiversity for human lives.
2. The Nairobi Final Act of 1992 led to the immediate designation of 22 May as the International Day for Biological Diversity.
3. The original date for the International Day for Biological Diversity, 29 December, marked the adoption of the text of the Convention on Biological Diversity.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is correct. The UN declared 2010 as the International Year of Biodiversity, celebrating both life on earth and the value of biodiversity for our lives. Statement 2 is incorrect. The designation of 22 May as the IDB happened in December 2000, not immediately in 1992. The Nairobi Final Act of 22 May 1992 was for the adoption of the text of the Convention. Statement 3 is incorrect. The original date of 29 December marked the entry into force of the Convention, not the adoption of its text. Therefore, only one statement is correct.

Question 37

Consider the following statements regarding the establishment and alteration of Tiger Reserves in India:

1. The State Government can notify an area as a tiger reserve based on its own assessment, without external recommendations.
2. Any alteration in the boundaries of a tiger reserve requires a recommendation from the National Tiger Conservation Authority and the approval of the National Board for Wild Life.
3. A State Government is permitted to de-notify a tiger reserve in the public interest, provided it has the approval of the National Board for Wild Life.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The State Government shall notify an area as a tiger reserve on the recommendation of the National Tiger Conservation Authority. Statement 2 is correct. No alteration in the boundaries of a tiger reserve shall be made except on a recommendation of the National Tiger Conservation Authority and the approval of the National Board for Wild Life. Statement 3 is incorrect. De-notification of a tiger reserve by a State Government, even in the public interest, requires the approval of both the National Tiger Conservation Authority and the National Board for Wild Life.

Question 38

With reference to the zonation within a Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements:

1. The Core zone is designated to promote co-existence between wildlife and human activity, with due recognition of the livelihood rights of the local people.
2. The Buffer zone is an area required to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of tiger conservation, without affecting the rights of Scheduled Tribes or other forest dwellers.
3. The limits of the Buffer zone are determined in consultation with the concerned Gram Sabha and an Expert Committee.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. It describes the function of a Buffer zone, not a Core zone. The Core zone is kept inviolate. Statement 2 is incorrect. It describes the characteristics of a Core zone, not a Buffer zone. The Buffer zone has a lesser degree of habitat protection. Statement 3 is correct. The limits of the Buffer zone are determined on the basis of scientific and objective criteria in consultation with the concerned Gram Sabha and an Expert Committee.

Question 39

Consider the following statements regarding conservation efforts in India:

1. Project Tiger, launched in 1973, includes the objective of conserving the fast-dwindling vulture population by providing diclofenac-free carcasses.
2. One of the stated aims of Project Tiger is to harmonize the rights of tribal people living in and around tiger reserves.
3. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory authority constituted through the Amendment Act of 2006.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect. Project Tiger's objective is the conservation of tigers. The conservation of vultures through measures like providing diclofenac-free food is a separate conservation effort. Statement 2 is correct. Harmonizing the rights of tribal people is one of the two main aims of Project Tiger. Statement 3 is correct. The NTCA was established as a statutory authority by the Amendment Act of 2006 to improve the implementation of tiger conservation plans.

Question 40

With reference to the conservation of the Asiatic Lion, consider the following statements:
1. The 'Asiatic Lion Conservation Project' is funded entirely by the Central Government under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme - Development of Wildlife Habitat (CSS-DWH).
2. A primary scientific justification for lion relocation is the low genetic diversity of the Gir population, which increases its vulnerability to epidemics.
3. The Asiatic Lion is listed in Schedule-I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect. The project is funded from the CSS-DWH with a contributing ratio of 60:40 between the Central and State governments, not entirely by the Central Government. Statement 2 is correct. The motive for finding a relocation site is that the population in Gir has low genetic diversity, making it vulnerable to threats of extinction from epidemics. Statement 3 is correct. The Asiatic Lion is listed in Schedule-I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, and is to be accorded the highest degree of protection.

Question 41

With reference to the conservation of the Indian Rhinoceros, consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Rhino Vision 2020 was an initiative implemented solely by the Department of Environment and Forests, Assam, and The Bodo Autonomous Council.
2. A key reason for translocating rhinos from Kaziranga is that the population there has exceeded the area's carrying capacity, leading to increased human-animal conflicts.
3. The National Conservation Strategy for the Indian One-Horned Rhinoceros aims to repopulate areas that historically held rhinoceros populations.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The programme was supported by multiple partners, including WWF-India, the International Rhino Foundation (IRF), and other local NGOs, in addition to the Assam government and The Bodo Autonomous Council. Statement 2 is incorrect. The issue of exceeding carrying capacity and the need to reduce numbers to mitigate human-rhino conflicts is mentioned in the context of Pabitora, not Kaziranga. The risk for Kaziranga is the concentration of a large population in a single area. Statement 3 is correct. The strategy's goal is to repopulate the Rhinoceros population in areas which used to hold them earlier.

Question 42

Consider the following pairs:
1. Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve : Identified site for One-horned Rhino relocation
2. Kuno-Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary : Identified alternate site for Asiatic Lion
3. Pabitora Wildlife Sanctuary : Rhino population has exceeded carrying capacity
4. Kumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary : Identified site for One-horned Rhino relocation

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan has been identified as a potential site for lion relocation under Project Lion, not for rhinos. Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Kuno-Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary was identified as an alternate site for lion relocation. Pair 3 is correctly matched. Rhinos in Pabitora have exceeded carrying capacity, necessitating a reduction in their numbers. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. Kumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary in Rajasthan has been identified as a potential site for lion relocation, not for rhinos. Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Question 43

With reference to the Cheetah reintroduction project in India, consider the following statements:

1. The reintroduced cheetahs belong to the Asiatic subspecies, which became extinct in India in the mid-20th century.
2. The project's expansion phase involves establishing populations in diverse habitats, including both National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
3. As per the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, reintroduction of a species requires its habitat to be declared a 'Critical Tiger Habitat' first.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The cheetahs reintroduced in India are of the African subspecies (Acinonyx jubatus jubatus) from Namibia and South Africa, not the Asiatic cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus venaticus). Statement 2 is correct. The project began in Kuno National Park and is expanding to other sites like Gandhisagar Wildlife Sanctuary, demonstrating the use of different protected area categories. Statement 3 is incorrect. There is no such provision in the WPA, 1972. Declaration of a Critical Tiger Habitat is specific to Project Tiger and is not a prerequisite for reintroducing other species. Therefore, only one statement is correct.

Question 44

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Ramsar Convention's 'Wetland City Accreditation' scheme recognizes cities for their exceptional actions to conserve and wisely use their urban and peri-urban wetlands.

Statement-II: This accreditation is a legally binding mechanism that empowers the Ramsar Secretariat to impose financial penalties on designated cities if they fail to maintain the ecological character of the accredited wetlands.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.. Statement-I is correct. The Wetland City Accreditation scheme, formally adopted by the Ramsar Convention, is designed to encourage cities that are in proximity to and dependent on wetlands to promote conservation and wise use. Statement-II is incorrect. The accreditation is a voluntary, non-binding mechanism. It serves as a positive branding and promotional tool, not a punitive legal framework. The Ramsar Secretariat does not have the authority to impose financial penalties under this scheme.

Question 45

With reference to India's National Wildlife Action Plan (2017-2031), consider the following statements:

1. It is the first national plan to formally integrate climate change concerns into wildlife management planning.
2. It adopts a 'landscape approach', concentrating conservation resources exclusively within the legally defined boundaries of Protected Areas.
3. It emphasizes strengthening the 'core-buffer-multi use surround' structure for better management of wildlife habitats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct. The third NWAP (2017-2031) is noted for being the first to explicitly acknowledge the impacts of climate change on wildlife and integrate mitigation and adaptation measures. Statement 2 is incorrect. This statement inverts the concept. A 'landscape approach' explicitly aims to conserve wildlife beyond the confines of Protected Areas, by managing entire landscapes that include corridors, buffer zones, and human-dominated areas. Statement 3 is correct. The plan recommends strengthening the 'core-buffer-multi use surround' model to ensure integrated management and elicit cooperation from local communities through eco-development activities.

Question 46

Consider the following statements regarding Protected Areas in India:

1. Community Reserves are declared by the State Government on lands where a community has volunteered to conserve wildlife.
2. The management of a Community Reserve is vested in a Management Committee headed by the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State.
3. Unlike in a National Park, traditional grazing rights of the local community can be continued in a Community Reserve.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct. As per the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, the State Government can declare any private or community land as a Community Reserve if the individuals or community concerned have volunteered. Statement 2 is incorrect. The management of the reserve is done by a Community Reserve Management Committee. While the Forest Department has an advisory and supportive role, the committee is not headed by the Chief Wildlife Warden; it is constituted by the State Government and includes community representatives. Statement 3 is correct. In a National Park, most human activities, including grazing, are prohibited. In a Community Reserve, the rights of the people living inside are managed by the committee, and traditional practices like grazing may be allowed to continue as per the management plan. Therefore, two statements (1 and 3) are correct.

Question 47

Consider the following statements regarding India's conservation strategies:

Statement-I: The latest National Wildlife Action Plan adopts a 'landscape approach' for the conservation of flora and fauna.

Statement-II: This approach legally mandates the restriction of all conservation activities exclusively within the core areas of designated National Parks and Sanctuaries to minimize human-wildlife conflict.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct. The third National Wildlife Action Plan (2017-2031) indeed takes a landscape approach to conserve all wildlife, irrespective of its location. Statement-II is incorrect. A 'landscape approach' is fundamentally inclusive, extending conservation beyond protected area boundaries to surrounding areas (e.g., core-buffer-multi use structures). It does not restrict activities exclusively to core areas; in fact, it does the opposite by integrating conservation into the wider landscape.

Question 48

With reference to the Green Credit Programme (GCP) in India, consider the following statements:

1. The programme's rules were amended to link the tradability of credits to achieving verifiable ecological outcomes like minimum canopy density.
2. It is designed to function as a market-based mechanism to incentivize voluntary environmental actions by individuals and corporations.
3. The programme is implemented by NITI Aayog as part of its mandate for promoting sustainable development models.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct; recent amendments shifted the focus from mere tree planting to verifiable outcomes like achieving a minimum canopy density over a specified period. Statement 2 is correct; the GCP is a market-based mechanism to encourage voluntary pro-environment actions. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Green Credit Programme and its rules are notified and steered by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), not NITI Aayog. Therefore, only two statements are correct.

Question 49

Consider the following statements regarding the South Asia Wildlife Enforcement Network (SAWEN):

1. It is a regional inter-governmental body whose statute imposes legally binding obligations on member states to curb trans-boundary wildlife crime.
2. India was a founding member that played a primary role in the network's establishment.
3. Its objective is to strengthen regional cooperation on combating illegal wildlife trade through coordination and capacity-building.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect. SAWEN is an inter-governmental wildlife law enforcement support body. It functions as a coordination and collaboration network, but its statute does not impose legally binding obligations on member states. Membership and participation are voluntary. Statement 2 is incorrect. SAWEN was formally launched in 2011. India's Union Cabinet approved the adoption of the SAWEN statute in 2016, making it a formal member only at that time. Therefore, India was not a founding member. Statement 3 is correct. The primary objective of SAWEN is to strengthen regional cooperation among South Asian countries to combat wildlife crime. This is achieved through harmonizing policies, sharing information and intelligence, and promoting capacity-building activities.

Question 50

With reference to wildlife governance in India, consider the following statements:
1. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
2. The 'core-buffer' strategy mandates that core areas of tiger reserves are kept free of all human activities, including traditional rights.
3. The power to declare any wild animal, not included in Schedule I and V, as 'vermin' for a specified area and period rests with the respective State Government's Chief Wildlife Warden.

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct. The NTCA was constituted in 2005 following a recommendation of the Tiger Task Force and was given statutory status by a 2006 amendment to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement 2 is correct. The 'core-buffer' strategy designates the critical tiger habitat (core area) as a national park or sanctuary, where human activities are highly restricted to ensure inviolate space for tigers. The buffer is a multi-use area for co-existence. Statement 3 is incorrect. The power to declare any wild animal as vermin (for a specific area and time) is vested with the Central Government under Section 62 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, not the State Government or its officials.

Question 51

Consider the following statements regarding India's wildlife conservation policy:

Statement-I: The third National Wildlife Action Plan (2017-2031) is the first national plan in India to formally integrate climate change mitigation and adaptation into wildlife management.

Statement-II: The plan signifies a strategic shift from a landscape-level approach to a more focused, species-specific conservation strategy confined primarily within protected area boundaries.

Accepted Answer

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is correct. The third National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) for 2017-2031 is indeed the first to specifically recognize the impact of climate change on wildlife and incorporate actions for mitigation and adaptation. Statement-II is incorrect. This is a process inversion. The plan actually strengthens and emphasizes a 'landscape approach' to conserve all wildlife, including outside protected areas, to ensure habitat connectivity and genetic flow. It moves away from a purely protected-area-centric view, not towards it.

Question 52

Consider the following pairs related to wildlife conservation bodies:
1. CITES : A legally binding international agreement between governments to regulate wildlife trade.
2. National Board for Wildlife : A statutory body chaired by the Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
3. SAWEN : A specialized agency of the United Nations for combating wildlife crime in South Asia.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only one pair. Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is a multilateral treaty that is legally binding on its Parties, obligating them to implement its provisions. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a statutory organization constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. However, it is chaired by the Prime Minister of India, not the Environment Minister. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The South Asia Wildlife Enforcement Network (SAWEN) is an inter-governmental regional body for combating wildlife crime. It is not a specialized agency of the United Nations. Therefore, only one pair is correctly matched.

Question 53

With reference to the National Wildlife Action Plan (2017-2031), consider the following statements:

1. It is the first national plan of its kind to formally integrate climate change concerns into wildlife management planning.
2. It adopts a 'landscape approach', focusing on conservation of flora and fauna both inside and outside protected areas.
3. It prioritizes the preservation of genetic diversity and sustainable use of ecosystems for supporting rural communities.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

All three. Statement 1 is correct. The plan is the first in India to acknowledge climate change impacts on wildlife and integrate mitigation and adaptation strategies. Statement 2 is correct. The plan explicitly takes a 'landscape approach' to conserve all species of ecological value, regardless of where they exist, moving beyond just protected areas. Statement 3 is correct. The plan highlights the preservation of genetic variation and the sustainable use of species and ecosystems as critical for scientific advancement and supporting millions of rural populations.

Question 54

Consider the following statements regarding the South Asia Wildlife Enforcement Network (SAWEN):

1. It is a regional inter-governmental body aimed at strengthening cooperation to combat trans-boundary wildlife crime.
2. All SAARC member countries are part of this network.
3. It was established as a specialized agency under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is correct. SAWEN is an inter-governmental wildlife law enforcement support body for the South Asian region, focused on combating trans-boundary wildlife crime through cooperation and coordination. Statement 2 is correct. The eight members of SAWEN are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. These countries are also all the members of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). Statement 3 is incorrect. SAWEN is an independent regional initiative launched in 2011 and is not an agency established under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), although it may collaborate with such international bodies for support and expertise. Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 55

Consider the following pairs:

Species              : Ecological Role
1. One-horned Rhinoceros : Maintaining grassland health
2. Blackbuck             : Aiding seed dispersal in arid regions
3. Tiger                 : Regulating herbivore populations

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

All three pairs. Pair 1 is correctly matched. Rhinos in ecosystems like Kaziranga act as mega-herbivores, grazing extensively and helping maintain the health and structure of grasslands, which supports other herbivore populations. Pair 2 is correctly matched. In arid and semi-arid regions like the Thar Desert, Blackbucks play a role in seed dispersal for key plant species like the Khejri tree, which is vital for preventing desertification. Pair 3 is correctly matched. As a keystone species and apex predator, the tiger plays a crucial role in regulating the populations of herbivores, which prevents overgrazing and subsequent habitat degradation.

Question 56

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The local extinction of a keystone predator species can trigger the degradation of the floral ecosystem in its habitat.

Statement-II: The absence of apex predators leads to an uncontrolled increase in herbivore populations, resulting in overgrazing and a decline in vegetation cover.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.. Statement-I is correct. The removal of a keystone predator can have cascading effects down the food web, often leading to significant changes in the plant community, a phenomenon known as a trophic cascade. Statement-II is also correct. It provides the precise mechanism for the effect described in Statement-I. Without predation pressure, herbivore populations can grow unchecked, leading to intense grazing pressure (overgrazing) that degrades plant life and the overall habitat. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct scientific explanation for Statement-I.

Question 57

With reference to the legal and constitutional framework for environmental protection in India, consider the following statements:

1. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment introduced environmental protection as an explicit Fundamental Right for citizens.
2. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended, permits the use of elephants for specified religious or other purposes.
3. The Central Government is empowered to regulate the import of invasive alien species under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The 42nd Amendment introduced Article 51-A(g), which made environmental protection a Fundamental Duty, not a Fundamental Right. The Right to a healthy environment has been interpreted by the judiciary under Article 21 (Right to Life), but it is not an explicit Fundamental Right. Statement 2 is correct. The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022, modified Section 43 to allow the transfer or transport of live elephants for religious or any other purpose by a person having a certificate of ownership. Statement 3 is incorrect. The power to regulate and halt the import, trade, or possession of invasive alien species was granted to the Central Government under the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Therefore, only one statement is correct.

Question 58

Consider the following statements regarding land degradation in India:

Statement-I: Despite India being a signatory to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), the total area undergoing desertification and land degradation has shown an increasing trend over the last two decades.

Statement-II: The decline of Soil Organic Carbon (SOC) in intensively farmed areas enhances soil fertility and water retention capacity, thereby mitigating land degradation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.. Statement-I is correct. Official reports, such as the Desertification and Land Degradation Atlas of India published by ISRO, confirm that the total area undergoing land degradation has increased. For example, the area increased from 96.40 million hectares in 2011-13 to 97.85 million hectares in 2018-19. This confirms an increasing trend despite India's international commitments under the UNCCD. Statement-II is incorrect. This statement describes the opposite of the actual process (a process inversion). A decline in Soil Organic Carbon (SOC) degrades soil structure, reduces fertility, and lowers water retention capacity. These effects exacerbate land degradation and desertification, they do not mitigate them. An increase in SOC is what enhances soil health. Therefore, Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Question 59

With reference to the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022, consider the following statements:

1. It rationalizes the schedules for species by creating a dedicated schedule for specimens listed under the Appendices of CITES.
2. It empowers the Central Government to appoint a Scientific Authority to provide guidance on the survival impact of trade in specimens.
3. The newly established Standing Committee of the State Board for Wildlife is authorized to declare any wild animal a vermin.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is correct. The 2022 amendment aims to align the Act with the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) by introducing a new schedule for CITES-listed species. Statement 2 is correct. The amendment adds Section 49E, which allows the Central Government to designate a Management Authority and a Scientific Authority to fulfill CITES obligations, with the latter providing scientific advice. Statement 3 is incorrect. The power of State Governments to declare any wild animal a vermin was withdrawn by the 1991 amendment. The 2022 amendment establishes a Standing Committee to exercise delegated powers of the State Board, but it does not restore or grant it the power to declare vermin. This is a functional swap; the committee's role is different.

Question 60

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Monitoring of Illegal Killing of Elephants (MIKE)' programme:
1. It was established by a resolution of the Conference of the Parties to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
2. Its primary objective is to measure trends in illegal hunting and determine the factors associated with such changes.
3. The programme is implemented across all three species of elephants, covering their ranges in both Asia and Africa.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect. The MIKE programme was mandated by a Conference of the Parties (COP) resolution of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), not the IUCN. Statement 2 is correct. A key objective of MIKE is to measure levels and trends in the illegal hunting of elephants and to determine the factors causing or associated with such changes. Statement 3 is correct. The MIKE programme is implemented in numerous sites across Africa and Asia, covering the ranges of both African and Asian elephants, which includes the three recognized species (African bush, African forest, and Asian).

Question 61

With reference to Elephant Corridors in India, consider the following statements:
1. A significant majority of the identified elephant corridors in India are fully under forest cover, ensuring protected passage.
2. Habitat fragmentation affecting these corridors is most severe in South India due to rapid urbanization and agricultural expansion.
3. In Central India, a large proportion of corridors are under mixed land use, including agriculture and human settlements.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. A small minority, not a majority, of identified elephant corridors are under full forest cover. The 'Elephant Corridors of India, 2023' report indicates that only about 20% of corridors have complete forest cover, with a significant portion being used for agriculture and other mixed land uses. Statement 2 is incorrect. Habitat fragmentation affecting corridors is most severe in Northern West Bengal, where land use like tea gardens and agriculture heavily fragments the landscape. In contrast, analysis by the Wildlife Trust of India has shown fragmentation to be least severe in South India. Statement 3 is correct. In Central India, a region with significant mining activity, a very high proportion of corridors (around 90%) are under mixed land use, including agriculture and human settlements. This land use pattern is a primary driver of human-elephant conflict in the region.

Question 62

Consider the following statements regarding animal adaptation in the context of Human-Wildlife Conflict:
Statement-I: Certain carnivore populations, such as leopards in Maharashtra, have adapted to thrive in human-modified landscapes like sugarcane fields.
Statement-II: This behavioural adaptation is primarily a result of successful conservation efforts that have increased their natural fear of humans, prompting them to seek safer agricultural landscapes.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.. Statement-I is correct. Leopards in regions like Maharashtra have adapted to living within dense sugarcane fields, which provide cover and proximity to prey. Statement-II is incorrect. This adaptation is not due to an increased fear of humans; rather, it is a result of habituation and a loss of natural fear. These animals learn to associate human-dominated areas with reliable food sources, leading to increased conflict.

Question 63

With reference to elephant conservation initiatives in India, consider the following statements:
1. Project Elephant is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at protecting elephants and is implemented only in states with designated Elephant Reserves.
2. The 'Haathi Mere Saathi' campaign was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in partnership with the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).
3. The 'Project Tiger' and 'Project Elephant' divisions have been merged into a single division under the MoEFCC to synergize conservation efforts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect. Project Elephant assists states with free-ranging populations of wild elephants, not exclusively those with formally designated Elephant Reserves. Statement 2 is incorrect. The 'Haathi Mere Saathi' campaign was a partnership between the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) and the Wildlife Trust of India (WTI), not the WWF. Statement 3 is correct. To improve synergy, the Project Tiger and Project Elephant divisions were merged to form the 'Project Tiger and Elephant Division' under the MoEFCC.

Question 64

Consider the following statements regarding the Asian elephant (Elephas maximus):

1. The Indian elephant is a distinct species, separate from the Asian elephant, found exclusively within the Indian subcontinent.
2. In Asian elephants, only males possess tusks, which are modified canine teeth used for defense.
3. It is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, affording it the highest degree of legal protection in India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian elephant (Elephas maximus indicus) is a subspecies of the Asian elephant, not a distinct species. There are other subspecies of Asian elephants found outside India. Statement 2 is incorrect. Not all male Asian elephants have tusks (such males are called 'makhnas'), and females can have small tusks (tushes). Furthermore, elephant tusks are modified incisor teeth, not canines. Statement 3 is correct. The Asian elephant is listed in Schedule I of the WPA, 1972, providing it with the highest level of protection against hunting and trade.

Schedule Animals of WPA 1972

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