Biodiversity

Q1.With reference to the Indian Himalayan Region (IHR), consider the following statements: 1. The IHR administratively encompasses the entire territory of twelve states. 2. Due to its vast green cover, the IHR primarily functions as a large-scale carbon source. 3. The administrative definition of the IHR includes the hill districts of West Bengal. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q2.Consider the following statements regarding the initiatives to control plastic pollution in Himachal Pradesh: 1. The Himachal Pradesh Non-Biodegradable Garbage (Control) Act, 1995, from its very enactment, imposed a complete ban on all plastic carry bags in the state. 2. The state government mandated a minimum thickness for plastic carry bags that was less than the thickness recommended by the Central Rules. 3. The 1995 Act was primarily aimed at preventing the indiscriminate disposal of non-biodegradable garbage in public areas like drains and roads. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q3.Consider the following pairs regarding lake conservation initiatives in the Himalayan region: 1. Naini Lake : Characterized by a settlement of about 60,000 people living within the lake. 2. Dal Lake : Serves as the sole source of drinking water for its principal town. 3. Mission Butterfly : An initiative involving waste collection and its conversion to manure for income generation. How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q4.With reference to the siting criteria delineated by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) for projects, consider the following statements: 1. The conversion of prime agricultural land or forest land into an industrial site is strictly prohibited. 2. The layout of a project must conform to the landscape without unduly affecting the scenic features of the place. 3. An associated township for a project must incorporate a phytographic barrier, taking into account the predominant wind direction. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q5.Consider the following pairs regarding minimum distance criteria for project siting: 1. Estuaries : At least 200 metres from the boundary 2. Flood Plains of Riverine systems : At least 0.5 km from the flood plain 3. Transport/Communication System : At least 25 km from a highway 4. Major Settlements (>3,00,000 population) : At least 500 metres from the projected growth boundary How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q6.With respect to the procedure for Environmental Public Hearing, consider the following statements: 1. The project proponent seeking environmental clearance submits an application for a public hearing directly to the Environmental Information System (ENVIS). 2. The State Pollution Control Board is responsible for causing a notice for the public hearing to be published in at least two newspapers. 3. The Initial Project Description (IPD) must be submitted to the State Pollution Control Board as part of the application for environmental clearance. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q7.With reference to the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process in India, consider the following statements: 1. The responsibility for commissioning the preparation of an EIA report for a project lies with an independent regulatory authority to ensure impartiality. 2. A key structural safeguard is the mandatory accreditation of EIA consultants, which allows for holding them liable for discrepancies or fraudulent reports. 3. EIA reports are characteristically based on multi-seasonal data to provide an adequate basis for granting environmental clearance.

Q8.Consider the following statements regarding the procedural aspects of the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) in India: 1. All projects with significant environmental impacts are mandatorily covered under the EIA notification, based on their potential impact rather than investment size. 2. The EIA framework ensures that public comments are integrated at the initial stages of project assessment to proactively address conflicts. 3. The process guarantees that all documents to which the public are entitled are made available in a timely manner to facilitate effective public hearings.

Q9.In the context of the critique of the Indian EIA system, consider the following statements: 1. The expert committees formed for conducting EIA studies are noted for their comprehensive composition, typically including environmentalists, wildlife experts, and social scientists. 2. A major focus of the current EIA process is the conservation of natural resources, shifting away from a purely exploitative perspective. 3. EIA reports are generally robust in their assessment of biological diversity and the consequent impacts of projects on it.

Q10.With reference to the recommendations for EIA reform, consider the following statements: 1. The provision for site clearance by the Impact Assessment agency should imply a firm commitment to grant the full environmental clearance later. 2. The prior informed consent for environmental clearance should be obtained from the full general body of local communities and urban wards. 3. Public hearings are recommended to be made applicable to all projects which have environmental impacts, including those categories that were hitherto exempt. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q11.Consider the following statements regarding the proposed reforms for expert committees and redressal mechanisms in the EIA process: 1. It is recommended that the composition of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) be altered to include more non-judicial environmental experts to ensure a balance of perspectives. 2. The recommendations suggest replacing the present executive committees with experts, and the selection process for these new committees should be open and transparent. 3. Citizens should be empowered to access the designated authority for redressal of all violations of the EIA notification as well as for issues relating to non-compliance. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q12.With reference to information management and capacity building in EIA reforms, consider the following statements: 1. The creation of a centralized baseline data bank is recommended for consolidating environmental data. 2. Information related to projects, from notification to clearance, should be disseminated only to the local communities directly impacted by the project. 3. Capacity building initiatives are primarily targeted at government agencies to help them better implement the EIA notification. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q13.Consider the following statements regarding the Environment Supplement Plan (ESP): 1. The ESP is a legally mandated activity for any entity found to be in violation of the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006. 2. The ESP framework is designed as a practical implementation of the 'Polluters Pay Principle'. 3. The legal foundation for the ESP is based on court judgments that explicitly condone the post facto regularization of EIA violations.

Q14.With reference to the PARIVESH portal, consider the following statements: 1. It functions as a single-window interface for proponents to submit applications for Environment, Forest, Wildlife, and CRZ clearances. 2. Within the portal, a project proponent must complete a separate registration process for each distinct type of clearance sought. 3. The system generates a unique-ID for each type of clearance (e.g., one for Forest, one for Wildlife) required for a particular project.

Q15.Consider the following statements regarding Environmentally Sensitive places: 1. The framework for identifying such places includes purely anthropogenic infrastructure like defense installations, railway lines, and airports. 2. Tribal Settlements are classified as Environmentally Sensitive, with criteria for tribe specification including indications of primitive traits and shyness of contact with the community at large. 3. Coastal areas are designated as Environmentally Sensitive exclusively on the basis of being rich in corals and mangroves.

Q16.With reference to Sikkim's Ecotourism policy, consider the following statements: 1. The policy employs a system of environmental fees and permits for entry into environmentally sensitive high-altitude areas. 2. A key feature of the policy is the institutionalization of tourism management at the community level. 3. The policy's official motto is 'Responsible Tourism for a Sustainable Future'. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q17.Consider the following statements regarding strategies for conservation in the Himalayas: 1. The Sacred Groves of Meghalaya, managed by tribal communities, are protected from any form of product extraction based on religious beliefs. 2. The Badrivan initiative in Uttarakhand involves participatory plantation by tourists for the rehabilitation of degraded forest areas. 3. Eco-cultural landscapes like Demazong in Sikkim are traditional systems that have evolved with high ecological efficiency but low economic efficiency. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q18.Consider the following pairs: 1. Apatani eco-cultural landscape : Sikkim 2. Annapurna Conservation Area : Nepal 3. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve : Uttarakhand 4. Demazong Buddhist landscape : Arunachal Pradesh How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q19.With reference to sand mining in India, consider the following statements: 1. The removal of sand from a riverbed enhances its function as an aquifer, thereby raising the local groundwater table. 2. Sand mining activities contribute to the deepening of rivers and the enlargement of river mouths. 3. By removing sand and boulders, the river's course is stabilized, preventing it from changing its path. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q20.Consider the following statements regarding the environmental consequences of sand mining: 1. Riverbed sand mining has been identified as a primary cause for the near extinction of the gharial, a crocodile species unique to India. 2. The dredging of sand from riverbeds directly removes the habitat critical for microorganisms responsible for soil structure and fertility. 3. Sand mining in coastal areas can lead to saline water ingress into freshwater sources. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q21.Consider the following statements about the functions of sand in an ecosystem: 1. Sand on a riverbed functions as a natural carpet that, when removed, leads to downstream erosion. 2. The removal of sand and boulders from a riverbed reduces the river's overall erosion capacity. 3. Sand acts as a buffer against strong tidal waves and storms, a function primarily associated with its presence in riverine ecosystems. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q22.Consider the following statements regarding the causes of Colony Collapse Disorder (CCD): 1. Sublethal exposure to neonicotinoid pesticides interferes with a honeybee's navigational abilities, preventing its return to the hive. 2. The practice of replacing honey with high-fructose corn syrup can lead to bee malnutrition, as it lacks detoxifying compounds found in pollen and propolis. 3. Global warming contributes to CCD by creating a temporal mismatch between the emergence of pollinators and the blooming of their essential food-source flowers.

Q23.With reference to the symptoms of Colony Collapse Disorder (CCD), consider the following statements: 1. A key characteristic of an affected colony is the presence of the queen and capped brood, despite the absence of the adult worker bee population. 2. A large number of dead worker bees are typically found in and immediately surrounding the collapsed hive. 3. Food stores, such as honey and pollen, are usually found to be robbed by neighboring bees or other pests.

Q24.Consider the following statements: 1. Neonicotinoids are a class of insecticides that are substantially more toxic to mammals and birds than they are to invertebrates. 2. Cross-pollination by animals is critical for the thriving of at least 90 percent of the world's food crops. 3. The mechanism of action for neonicotinoids involves acting on certain nerve synapse receptors, a process chemically similar to that of nicotine.

Q25.With reference to the effects of mobile phone tower radiation on birds, consider the following statements: 1. Birds absorb less radiation compared to humans because their body surface area is relatively smaller than their body weight. 2. The high fluid content in a bird's body allows it to cool down rapidly when exposed to electromagnetic radiation. 3. The magnetic field from telecommunication towers enhances the navigational skills of birds, helping them to orient themselves more effectively.

Q26.Consider the following statements regarding the health impacts of Electromagnetic Radiation (EMR) from mobile phone towers on humans: 1. Non-thermal effects of EMR are caused by significant heating from the absorption of microwave radiation. 2. The movement of calcium and other ions across cell membranes is the primary mechanism behind the thermal effects of EMR. 3. Current exposure safety standards in India are comprehensively formulated based on both thermal and non-thermal effects of EMR.

Q27.Consider the following statements regarding the responsibilities of various stakeholders in managing mobile phone tower radiation: 1. The Department of Telecommunications is mandated to avoid the overlapping of high radiation fields by not permitting new towers within a one-kilometer radius of an existing tower. 2. State/local Bodies are responsible for carrying out an 'Ecological Impact Assessment' before granting permission for tower construction in wildlife and ecologically important areas. 3. The Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) is entrusted with the task of providing regular awareness among the people about the dangers of EMR from cell phone towers.

Q28.Consider the following statements regarding the cost of environmental degradation in India as per the World Bank report: 1. The total annual cost of environmental degradation is estimated to be 5.7% of India's 2009 GDP. 2. The economic cost to GDP from indoor air pollution is greater than the cost from outdoor air pollution. 3. Cardiopulmonary and chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases among adults are the primary drivers of the high costs associated with air pollution. 4. Environmental degradation is responsible for approximately 23% of child mortality in the country. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q29.The World Bank study, *Diagnostic Assessment of Select Environmental Challenges in India*, takes into account environmental damage from which of the following? 1. Urban air pollution, including particulate matter and lead. 2. Worsening agricultural output due to soil salinity and water logging. 3. Inadequate water supply and poor sanitation. 4. Marine pollution from oil spills and plastic waste. How many of the factors given above are considered in the study?

Q30.With reference to the steps taken by the Indian Government for controlling air pollution, consider the following actions: 1. Tightening of both vehicular and industrial emission norms. 2. Conducting source apportionment studies and preparing action plans for major cities. 3. Making environmental clearance mandatory for specified industries. 4. Implementing a nationwide carbon tax on all fossil fuel consumption. How many of the actions given above are part of the government's strategy?

Q31.With reference to the history of Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) in India, consider the following statements: 1. The process of EIA in India was initiated as a statutory requirement following the enactment of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 2. The initial mandate for examining river-valley projects from an environmental perspective was an administrative decision that lacked legislative support. 3. The Planning Commission, in collaboration with the Department of Science and Technology, began the process of environmental examination of projects in the 1970s. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q32.Consider the following statements regarding the fundamental objective of Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA): 1. EIA is primarily a post-project tool used to rectify adverse environmental impacts and assign liabilities for environmental damage. 2. The EIA process is designed to be separate from a project's planning and design stage to ensure an independent environmental audit. 3. A key function of EIA is to foresee potential environmental problems and integrate mitigation measures early in the project cycle, often during the feasibility report preparation. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q33.Consider the following pairs regarding notifications issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986: 1. Doon Valley : Regulating activities in coastal stretches. 2. Aravalli Range : Restricting certain activities in specified areas of Haryana and Rajasthan. 3. Dahanu Taluka : Prohibiting industries in a 1 km belt along the banks of Rajpuri Creek. How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q34.With reference to the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) cycle in India, consider the following statements: 1. The 'no-project option' is an alternative that is evaluated during the Impact Prediction phase. 2. The process of detailing the terms of reference for an EIA is known as Screening. 3. The collection of baseline data is the first phase in the EIA process before any other determination is made.

Q35.Consider the following statements regarding the initial phases of the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process: 1. The 'Screening' phase involves detailing the terms of reference for the EIA in consultation with the project proponent and the Impact Assessment Agency. 2. The criteria for 'Scoping' are based on the scale of investment, type of development, and location of development. 3. During the 'Scoping' phase, quantifiable impacts are assessed based on magnitude and frequency, while non-quantifiable impacts are determined through socio-economic criteria.

Q36.In the context of Impact Prediction within an EIA, consider the following pairs: Impact Category : Assessed Consequence 1. Biological : Changes in land use and drainage pattern 2. Socio-Economic : Impact on breeding and nesting grounds 3. Water : Ingress of saline water 4. Land : Changes in shoreline stability How many of the pairs above are correctly matched?

Q37.With reference to the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process, consider the following statements: 1. The fundamental difference between a Rapid EIA and a Comprehensive EIA lies in the scope of environmental impacts they are required to cover. 2. A Rapid EIA necessitates the collection of environmental data from one season, specifically the monsoon season, to assess maximum environmental stress. 3. A review of a Rapid EIA submission may determine that a Comprehensive EIA is warranted for the project. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q38.Consider the following tasks associated with the preparation of an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) report: 1. Assessment of potential damage to terrestrial flora and fauna due to changes in land use and landscape. 2. Prediction of impacts on water resources due to proposed water use and pumping activities. 3. Evaluation of the adequacy of proposed pollution control devices to meet gaseous emission standards. Under the standard components of an EIA, how many of the tasks above are correctly placed within their respective environmental sections (Biological, Water, and Air)?

Q39.Consider the following pairs regarding the components of an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) report: 1. Noise Environment : Monitoring site-specific meteorological data like wind speed and direction. 2. Water Environment : Assessment of the feasibility of water recycling and reuse. 3. Land Environment : Studies on existing drainage patterns within the impact zone. 4. Biological Environment : Assessment of damage to aquatic flora and fauna due to physical disturbances. How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q40.Consider the following statements: Statement-I: High exposure to particulate matter pollution in urban centres is a significant contributor to mortality from cardiopulmonary diseases. Statement-II: Particulate matter increases soil salinity and water logging, which in turn degrades human health. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q41.With reference to the economic costs of environmental degradation in India, consider the following statements: 1. The economic impact of outdoor air pollution is greater than that of indoor air pollution. 2. The combined GDP loss from both indoor and outdoor air pollution constitutes more than half of the total annual cost of environmental degradation. 3. A significant portion of child mortality in the country is attributed to environmental degradation. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q42.Regarding India's policy framework for pollution abatement, consider the following statements: 1. Policy measures to curb particulate matter pollution include incentivizing technology upgradation and strengthening enforcement. 2. Source apportionment studies and preparation of action plans for critically polluted areas are key components of the government's strategy. 3. The 'grow now, clean up later' approach has been identified as an environmentally unsustainable model for the country's long-term development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q43.With reference to the economic costs of environmental degradation in India, consider the following statements: 1. The economic impact of indoor air pollution is estimated to be greater than that of outdoor ambient air pollution. 2. A significant proportion of child mortality in the country is attributed to environmental degradation, particularly from inadequate water supply and sanitation. 3. The degradation of natural resources, such as through increased soil salinity and deforestation, contributes to the overall economic loss but is secondary to the impact of air pollution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q44.Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The economic cost of outdoor air pollution in India, measured as a share of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP), is substantial. Statement-II: The high economic cost is primarily driven by mortality and morbidity from cardiopulmonary diseases among the adult, productive population exposed to particulate matter. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q45.Consider the following actions with respect to air pollution management in India: 1. Conducting Source Apportionment (SA) studies. 2. Preparation and implementation of city-specific action plans for critically polluted areas. 3. Mandatory environmental clearance for specified industrial projects. 4. Strengthening the national network of air quality monitoring stations. How many of the above are established components of India's statutory and policy framework for air pollution control?

Q46.With reference to the economic costs of environmental degradation in India, consider the following statements: 1. Indoor air pollution accounts for a larger share of the GDP loss compared to outdoor air pollution. 2. A substantial portion of the economic burden from air pollution is due to increased mortality from non-communicable diseases like cardiopulmonary ailments. 3. Loss of agricultural productivity from soil degradation and waterlogging is a recognized component of the overall economic cost of environmental damage. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q47.Examine the following statements: Statement-I: The policy paradigm of 'grow now, clean up later' is often considered economically unsustainable for a country in the long run. Statement-II: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is the principal body in India responsible for conducting nationwide diagnostic assessments of environmental costs to guide national economic policy. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q48.Consider the following statements regarding environmental degradation and its management in India: 1. A significant portion of child mortality in the country is attributed to health issues arising from inadequate water supply and poor sanitation. 2. Source apportionment studies are conducted to determine the relative contribution of various sources to ambient air pollution in a specific area. 3. Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, environmental clearance is a mandatory prerequisite for all new industrial and infrastructure projects, irrespective of their scale or type. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q49.With reference to the economic costs associated with environmental degradation in India, consider the following statements: 1. The economic cost of indoor air pollution surpasses that of outdoor air pollution, primarily due to its impact on the rural workforce. 2. A substantial portion of the economic burden from air pollution is attributed to mortality from cardiopulmonary diseases among the adult productive population. 3. Degradation of natural resources, such as through soil erosion and deforestation, contributes to the overall economic cost but its impact is secondary to that of air pollution. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q50.Consider the following statements regarding environmental challenges in India: Statement-I: Environmental degradation, particularly from inadequate water supply and poor sanitation, is a major contributor to child mortality. Statement-II: The policy approach of prioritizing rapid economic growth before addressing environmental concerns has been identified as an environmentally unsustainable pathway. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q51.With reference to the economic costs of environmental degradation in India, consider the following statements: 1. The economic loss from indoor air pollution, as a share of GDP, is greater than that from outdoor air pollution. 2. Degradation of natural resources, including soil erosion and deforestation, contributes to the overall economic cost of environmental damage. 3. The primary economic impact of air pollution is linked to reduced agricultural output rather than adverse public health outcomes. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q52.Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A significant portion of child mortality in India is attributed to environmental degradation. Statement-II: This mortality is primarily driven by the exposure of children under five to high levels of ambient particulate matter, leading to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q53.With reference to the evolution of environmental assessment in India, consider the following statements: 1. The initial mandate for examining projects from an environmental angle in the 1970s was given by the Ministry of Environment & Forests. 2. The statutory backing for Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) was first established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. 3. Initially, the scope of such environmental examination was limited to river-valley projects. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q54.Consider the following statements regarding Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA): Statement-I: The primary function of EIA is to serve as a remedial tool to rectify environmental degradation after a developmental project is operational. Statement-II: EIA is a predictive process that integrates environmental considerations into the initial planning and design stages of a project to prevent adverse impacts. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q55.Consider the following pairs regarding area-specific regulations issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986: 1. Doon Valley : Regulation of mining and industrial location 2. Dahanu Taluka : Restriction on activities in coastal stretches 3. Aravalli Range : Restriction of specific activities in Haryana and Rajasthan 4. Numaligarh : Regulation of industries to prevent congestion in Assam How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q56.With reference to the Environmental Public Hearing process in India, consider the following statements: 1. The statutory notice for the hearing is published by the concerned State Pollution Control Board. 2. A minimum period of sixty days is provided for the public to submit suggestions and objections. 3. The public hearing panel must include a representative of the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q57.Consider the following statements regarding project siting under the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) framework: Statement-I: Strategic site selection is a proactive approach that can significantly minimize the need for subsequent environmental mitigation measures. Statement-II: Siting guidelines explicitly prohibit the conversion of any prime agricultural or forest land for industrial projects to ensure food security and biodiversity conservation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q58.With reference to the general siting criteria for industrial projects to minimize environmental impact, consider the following statements: 1. Projects should be located at least 500 metres from the high tide line in coastal areas. 2. A minimum distance of 25 km is recommended from the projected growth boundary of major settlements with a population over 3,00,000. 3. The layout must provide for a green belt and conform to the natural landscape without unduly affecting scenic features. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q59.With reference to the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process in India, consider the following statements: 1. The responsibility for commissioning and funding the EIA report lies with the project proponent. 2. EIA reports based on single-season data are considered inadequate for a comprehensive understanding of environmental impacts. 3. The government mandates a national-level accreditation system for blacklisting fraudulent EIA consultants. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q60.Consider the following statements regarding the fauna of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands: 1. The Nicobar Megapode is a bird species widely distributed across the Indian mainland and its coastal areas. 2. The islands serve as a globally significant nesting site for the Giant Leatherback turtle. 3. The Dugong, a vulnerable marine mammal, is found in the seagrass beds around the islands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q61.Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Large-scale infrastructure projects in archipelagos situated near tectonic plate convergences warrant exceptionally stringent risk assessments for tsunamis. Statement-II: Such island chains are often characterized by high species endemism and fragile ecosystems, making them particularly vulnerable to both geological and anthropogenic disturbances.

Q62.With reference to environmental governance in the Indian Himalayan Region, consider the following statements: 1. The Himachal Pradesh Non-Biodegradable Garbage (Control) Act, 1995 is a central legislation applicable to all Himalayan states. 2. The Lake and Waterways Development Authority (LAWDA) is a central government body solely responsible for the conservation of Dal Lake. 3. The Assam Hill Land and Ecological Sites Act, 2006, empowers the state government to protect designated hill areas from indiscriminate cutting. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q63.Consider the following statements regarding the ecological impact of urbanization in fragile mountain ecosystems: Statement-I: Unplanned urbanization and large-scale construction in Himalayan towns often lead to the drying up of natural water sources like springs. Statement-II: This phenomenon occurs because increased concretization and deforestation reduce surface runoff, thereby enhancing groundwater recharge and depleting the springs. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q64.Consider the following pairs: Initiative/Concept : Key Feature 1. Mission Butterfly : Participatory solid waste management in Nainital 2. JNNURM : A mission focused exclusively on urban development in Himalayan eco-sensitive towns 3. Four 'R's Principle : A statutory mandate under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q65.Consider the following pairs regarding the stages of the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process in India: 1. Screening: Detailing the terms of reference for the EIA study. 2. Scoping: Determining if a project requires statutory environmental clearance. 3. Public Hearing: Consulting persons likely to be affected by the proposed project. 4. Appraisal: Evaluating the EIA report and EMP for final decision-making. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q66.With reference to the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification of 2006, consider the following statements: 1. Category A projects are appraised at the state level by the State Level Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA). 2. All Category B projects are mandatorily required to undergo a full Environmental Impact Assessment process. 3. The 2006 notification decentralized the clearance process by creating two categories of projects, A and B. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q67.Consider the following statements regarding environmental clearances in India: Statement-I: The concept of 'post-facto clearance' in environmental regulations refers to a mechanism for regularizing projects that have commenced operations without obtaining prior environmental clearance. Statement-II: The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the parent legislation for environmental regulations, inherently allows for the regularization of projects that have commenced operations without prior clearance. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q68.With reference to the environmental consequences of sand mining, consider the following statements: 1. It can lead to the deepening of rivers and the enlargement of river mouths. 2. It enhances the groundwater table by creating more porous layers in the riverbed. 3. It can increase a coastline's vulnerability to storm surges and tsunamis. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q69.Consider the following statements regarding alternatives to river sand: Statement-I: The use of 'manufactured sand' (M-sand) is increasingly suggested as a viable and sustainable alternative to river sand for construction purposes. Statement-II: M-sand is primarily produced by processing fly ash, a byproduct of thermal power plants, which makes it an eco-friendly material. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q70.With reference to the regulation of sand mining in India, consider the following statements: 1. Some state policies mandate that sand quarrying on government lands can only be undertaken by the government itself. 2. In certain states, the responsibility for overseeing sand mining activities has been transferred to the Public Works Department. 3. The Supreme Court of India has made it compulsory for all sand mining contractors to obtain permission from the local Gram Sabha. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q71.Consider the following pairs regarding rivers significantly affected by sand mining and their primary associated state: 1. Bharathapuzha : Kerala 2. Ghaghara : Uttar Pradesh 3. Thamiraparani : Karnataka 4. Papagani : Andhra Pradesh How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?