Plant Diversity of India

Q1.With reference to the National Bamboo Mission (NBM), consider the following statements: 1. The NBM is classified as a Central Sector Scheme. 2. The mission is implemented under the administrative control of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. 3. A key strategic objective of the mission is to establish institutional structures to eliminate middlemen and ensure appropriate returns to producers. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q2.Consider the following statements regarding the Biodiversity Conservation & Rural Livelihood Improvement Project (BCRLIP): 1. The project is exclusively financed through a combination of an IDA loan and a GEF grant. 2. The project's implementation strategy includes the development of Joint Forest Management (JFM) as a model for community participation. 3. The project's geographical scope is limited to existing wildlife protected areas and does not provide for future expansion. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q3.Consider the following statements: Statement I: Both the National Bamboo Mission and the Biodiversity Conservation & Rural Livelihood Improvement Project are classified as Centrally Sponsored Schemes. Statement II: The funding for the National Bamboo Mission is entirely from the Central Government, while the BCRLIP involves contributions from international bodies, the central government, state governments, and beneficiaries. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q4.Consider the following statements regarding the Wildlife Trust of India (WTI): 1. WTI was founded in the last decade of the 20th century. 2. The organization operates exclusively by partnering with local communities, independent of any governmental collaboration. 3. The primary and sole mission of WTI is the rehabilitation of endangered species.

Q5.With reference to the Wildlife Trust of India (WTI), consider the following statements: 1. It is a governmental body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. 2. Its mandate includes the conservation of threatened habitats. 3. The prevention of illegal wildlife trade is one of its key operational areas.

Q6.Consider the following statements about the aims and partnerships of the Wildlife Trust of India (WTI): 1. WTI's conservation efforts are exclusively directed towards endangered species, not their habitats. 2. The organization was established in 1998. 3. WTI achieves its objectives by working in partnership with governments.

Q7.With reference to the National Green Tribunal (NGT), consider the following statements: 1. The NGT is mandated to dispose of cases within one year of their respective appeals. 2. India is the first country in the world to have established a full-fledged green tribunal. 3. The establishment of the NGT is intended for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests.

Q8.Consider the following statements regarding the scope and purpose of the National Green Tribunal (NGT): 1. The NGT's jurisdiction is exclusively limited to the conservation of forests and does not extend to other natural resources. 2. The tribunal is empowered to provide relief and compensation for damages to persons and property. 3. The NGT's specialized architecture is expected to slow down the resolution of environmental cases to ensure thoroughness.

Q9.With reference to the National Green Tribunal (NGT), consider the following statements: 1. India joined a league of countries that includes New Zealand and Australia in having a dedicated adjudicatory forum for environmental disputes. 2. The NGT is mandated to handle cases involving the enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment. 3. The establishment of the NGT is seen as a boost to the implementation of many sustainable development measures.

Q10.Consider the following statements regarding the UN Environment Assembly (UNEA): 1. The UN Environment Assembly was established as a direct outcome of the UN Conference on the Human Environment in Stockholm in 1972. 2. The Assembly convenes annually in Nairobi to set priorities for global environmental policies. 3. The overarching theme for the Third Environment Assembly was 'Innovative Solutions for environmental challenges and sustainable production'. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q11.With reference to India's actions regarding Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) under the Stockholm Convention, consider the following statements: 1. The ratification of POPs enables India to access financial resources from the Global Environment Facility (GEF). 2. The power to ratify chemicals under the Stockholm Convention has been delegated exclusively to the Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MEFCC). 3. Pentachlorobenzene and Hexabromocyclododecane are among the chemicals listed as POPs under the Stockholm Convention. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q12.Consider the following pairs: 1. Third UNEA Session : Sustainable Nitrogen management 2. Fourth UNEA Session : Towards a pollution-free planet 3. First/Second UNEA Sessions : Illegal trade in wildlife How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q13.With reference to international biodiversity frameworks, consider the following statements: 1. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is a non-binding agreement that recognizes the conservation of biodiversity as a 'common concern of humankind'. 2. The Cartagena Protocol primarily establishes a framework for the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources. 3. India's Biological Diversity Act, 2002, establishes a three-tier structure comprising the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), State Biodiversity Boards (SBB), and Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC). How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q14.Consider the following statements regarding protocols related to the Convention on Biological Diversity: 1. The Nagoya Protocol's main objective is to ensure an adequate level of protection in the safe transfer, handling, and use of Living Modified Organisms (LMOs). 2. The Advance Informed Agreement (AIA) procedure applies to LMOs intended for direct use as food or feed, or for processing (LMOs-FFP). 3. The Cartagena Protocol is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity that establishes procedures for regulating the transboundary movement of LMOs. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q15.Consider the following statements about the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD): 1. The CBD is a legally binding international treaty. 2. The scope of the CBD framework exclusively covers species and genetic resources, but not entire ecosystems. 3. The Convention posits that the significant environmental, economic, and social benefits derived from conservation justify the substantial investments required. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q16.Consider the following statements regarding the Ramsar Convention: 1. The Convention is formally affiliated with the United Nations system of Multilateral Environmental Agreements (MEAs). 2. The designation of a wetland as a Transboundary Ramsar Site confers a distinct and separate legal status upon the involved sites. 3. The Montreux Record is the principal tool of the Convention for recognizing and listing the most pristine and effectively managed wetlands of international importance.

Q17.With reference to the framework and mechanisms of the Ramsar Convention, consider the following statements: 1. It is the only global environmental treaty that deals with a particular ecosystem. 2. Upon joining the Convention, it is mandatory for each Contracting Party to designate at least one site for the List of Wetlands of International Importance. 3. The Montreux Record is maintained as a register completely separate from the Ramsar List.

Q18.Consider the following statements regarding Indian wetlands and the Montreux Record: 1. Chilika Lake was placed on the Montreux Record primarily due to problems caused by siltation and sedimentation. 2. As per the records, both Keoladeo National Park and Loktak Lake were included in the Montreux Record in the early 1990s. 3. The successful removal of Chilika Lake from the Montreux Record was recognized with the Ramsar Wetland Conservation Award in 2002.

Q19.Consider the following statements regarding the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS): 1. All agreements concluded under the CMS framework are legally binding treaties. 2. The Convention encourages Range States to conclude regional agreements for species listed in Appendix II. 3. The development of conservation models under CMS is limited to the specific requirements of particular regions rather than entire migratory ranges. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q20.With reference to the Central Asian Flyway (CAF), consider the following statements: 1. The flyway network geographically covers the areas between the Arctic and Pacific Oceans. 2. India has launched a National Action Plan for the conservation of migratory species, which operates under the framework of the Central Asian Flyway. 3. The CAF network encompasses at least 279 populations of migratory water bird species, of which 29 are globally threatened. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q21.Consider the following statements: 1. The Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) acts as a framework convention, meaning it provides the overarching structure for more specific agreements. 2. Listing a species in Appendix II of the CMS mandates that Range States must conclude a legally binding treaty for its protection. 3. Memoranda of Understanding are the only form of less formal instruments available under the CMS framework. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q22.Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF): 1. It was established by the United Nations General Assembly as a subsidiary body. 2. Its primary objective is based exclusively on the principles laid out in the Rio Declaration. 3. The membership of the Forum is composed only of the Member States of the United Nations.

Q23.Consider the following statements: 1. The International Tropical Timber Organization (ITTO) is an intergovernmental body whose members represent approximately 80% of the world's tropical forests and is primarily concerned with wildlife protection through animal culture. 2. The United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF) has a principal function to collect, analyse and disseminate data on the production and trade of tropical timber. 3. The ITTO's mandate under UIf (1986) is focused solely on promoting the trade of tropical forest resources.

Q24.With reference to international organizations for forest conservation, consider the following statements: 1. The International Tropical Timber Organization (ITTO) functions exclusively as a commodity organization, similar to other bodies concerned with trade and industry. 2. The United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF) is tasked with strengthening political commitment to the management of only tropical forests. 3. One of the principal functions of the UNFF is to encourage and assist countries, including those with low forest cover, to develop and implement forest conservation and rehabilitation strategies.

Q25.With reference to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), consider the following statements: 1. It is the sole legally binding international agreement that links environment and development specifically to sustainable land management. 2. The Convention defines 'desertification' as the process of physical expansion of existing deserts into arid and semi-arid regions. 3. It is one of the three Rio Conventions, focusing on desertification, land degradation and drought (DLDD). How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q26.Consider the following statements regarding the outcomes and initiatives associated with the UNCCD COP 14 held in New Delhi: 1. India raised its 2030 land restoration target from 21 million hectares to 26 million hectares. 2. The Great Green Wall Initiative, a roadmap for which was launched, is an Africa-led program to restore 100 million hectares of land. 3. An international coalition was launched to operationalize the UNCCD Drought Toolbox for mitigating transboundary impacts on human health. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q27.Consider the following pairs: 1. Koraput System : A farming system developed by farmers over 150 years ago to cultivate rice below sea level. 2. Kuttanad System : A traditional agricultural system where women have played a key role in the conservation of biodiversity. 3. GIAHS Programme : An initiative of the UNCCD to recognize remarkable land use systems. How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q28.With reference to India's engagement with the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), consider the following statements: 1. India's instrument of ratification for the Convention automatically binds it to all subsequent amendments concerning the listing of new POPs. 2. The 'Regulation of Persistent Organic Pollutants Rules, 2018' prohibited the manufacture and trade of Endosulfan. 3. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) derived its authority to notify the POPs Rules from the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q29.With reference to the properties of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), consider the following statements: 1. POPs are characterized by their high solubility in water, which is the primary reason for their accumulation in the fatty tissues of organisms. 2. Through a process of bioaccumulation, their concentration can be magnified in living tissue to levels thousands of times higher than background levels. 3. They are known to be toxic, with exposure leading to potential damage to the central and peripheral nervous systems. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q30.Consider the following pairs regarding substances and their classification under the Stockholm Convention: 1. Aldrin : Industrial chemical 2. Lindane : Pesticide 3. Hexabromobiphenyl : By-product How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q31.With reference to the Basel Convention, consider the following statements: 1. The Convention's scope of application is exclusively for wastes defined as 'hazardous' and does not include materials like household waste or incinerator ash. 2. The Convention was adopted in response to the transboundary movement of toxic wastes from developing countries to developed countries. 3. Wastes containing Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs) are explicitly regulated under this convention. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q32.With reference to the Comprehensive Environmental Pollution Index (CEPI), consider the following statements: 1. An industrial cluster with a CEPI score of 65 is classified as 'Critically polluted'. 2. The CEPI is primarily designed as a remedial action tool for restoring environmental quality. 3. The environmental assessment of industrial clusters using CEPI was a collaborative effort involving the Central Pollution Control Board and IIT, Delhi. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q33.Consider the following statements regarding the 'Eco Mark' scheme: 1. The scheme provides accreditation exclusively for industrial machinery and heavy equipment that meet specific environmental criteria. 2. For a product to receive an Eco Mark label, it must meet environmental criteria, which serves as an alternative to the quality requirements of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). 3. A key objective of the scheme is to recognize improvements in the environmental performance of a manufacturing unit, not just its final product. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q34.With reference to the Urban Services Environmental Rating System (USENS), consider the following statements: 1. The USENS project was funded by the Ministry of Environment and Forests and implemented by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). 2. The primary aim of USENS is to develop an analytical tool to measure the performance of industrial pollution control in urban areas. 3. The pilot cities identified for the implementation of the USENS project were Delhi and Kanpur. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q35.Consider the following statements regarding the 'Lighting a Billion Lives' (LaBL) campaign: 1. It is a government-led initiative managed directly by the Department of Telecommunications. 2. The campaign promotes solar lanterns that are designed and manufactured on a centralized basis. 3. It has facilitated the formation of over a hundred women-led Self Help Groups (SHGs). How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q36.With reference to the National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF), consider the following statements: 1. The fund was constituted in the Consolidated Fund of India. 2. The Clean Energy Cess, which finances the fund, is levied on producers of raw coal, raw lignite, and raw peat. 3. Government assistance for any project under the NCEF is capped at 40% of the total project cost. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q37.Consider the following statements regarding the National Mission for Electric Mobility (NCEM): 1. The establishment of the NCEM was influenced by India's large and secure petroleum reserves. 2. A key factor for its creation was the global automobile industry's shift towards more efficient drive technologies and electric vehicles. 3. The NCEM acts as the apex governmental body for recommending solutions to barriers such as high EV costs and battery technology challenges. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q38.With reference to the 'Adaptation of Irrigated Agriculture to Climate Change (AICHA)' project, consider the following statements: 1. The project is a multilateral initiative involving India, France, and Germany. 2. Its primary aim is to develop a model for analysing the impact of climate change on rain-fed agriculture. 3. The designated field study site for the project is located in South India.

Q39.Consider the following statements regarding conservation initiatives mentioned: 1. The 'Hargila army' is a conservation group formed by women self-help groups. 2. This initiative is dedicated to the protection of the Greater Adjutant Stork. 3. The project is being implemented in the same district selected for the AICHA project's field study.

Q40.Regarding the methodology of the AICHA project, consider the following statements: 1. The project will test adaptation strategies exclusively at the watershed scale. 2. The methodology combines remote sensing, field surveys, and advanced numerical analysis. 3. The project's approach is limited to hydrological and agronomical modeling, excluding socio-economic factors.

Q41.Consider the following statements regarding environmental awareness initiatives in India: 1. The Science Express Biodiversity Special (SEBS) was a collaborative initiative solely of the Ministry of Environment & Forests (MoEF). 2. The exhibition aboard SEBS was exclusively focused on the biodiversity of India, excluding topics like Climate Change and Energy Conservation. 3. SEBS represented the inaugural or first phase of the Science Express program. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q42.With reference to environmental education programmes, consider the following statements: 1. The GLOBE programme unites students, teachers, and scientists for the collection of data on basic environmental parameters. 2. The Eco-Clubs (National Green Corps) programme is an international initiative focused on imparting knowledge about global eco-systems. 3. India was a founding member of the Global Learning and Observations to Benefit the Environment (GLOBE) programme when it was launched. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q43.Consider the following statements regarding Environmental Education and Awareness schemes: 1. The National Environment Awareness Campaign (NEAC), launched in 1986, provides nominal financial assistance to registered NGOs, schools, and army units for organising awareness activities. 2. The Environment Education, Awareness & Training (EEAT) scheme's objective is to facilitate the development of educational materials primarily for the non-formal education sector. 3. The Science Express Biodiversity Special (SEBS) was a mobile exhibition on a train, initiated jointly by the Department of Science & Technology (DST) and the Ministry of Environment & Forests (MoEF). How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q44.With reference to environmental organizations in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory body. 2. One of the functions of the Animal Welfare Board of India is to identify endangered species for captive breeding. 3. The Animal Welfare Board of India advises the government on improvements in the design of slaughterhouses. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q45.Consider the following statements regarding the Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI): 1. The AWBI was constituted under the provisions of the Wild Life (Protection) Act. 2. The Board has the function of advising the Central Government on making rules to prevent unnecessary pain to animals during transport. 3. The members of the Board have a tenure of three years. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q46.Consider the following pairs: 1. Central Zoo Authority : Advising on vehicle design for draught animals 2. Animal Welfare Board of India : Coordinating the loaning of animals for breeding purposes 3. Central Zoo Authority : Granting recognition to zoos 4. Animal Welfare Board of India : Encouraging the formation of Pinjarapoles How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q47.With reference to the Biological Diversity Act (2002) and its institutional framework, consider the following statements: 1. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) advises State Governments in the selection of areas of biodiversity importance to be notified as heritage sites. 2. The State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) regulate requests for commercial utilization or bio-survey of any biological resource by all entities, including foreign corporations. 3. The Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) are primarily responsible for granting approvals for the transfer of biological resources to other parties. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q48.Consider the following statements regarding the powers and procedures of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA): 1. The NBA's mandate to oppose the grant of intellectual property rights is limited to rights being sought within India. 2. Any person seeking intellectual property rights on research based on Indian biological resources must obtain approval from the NBA after the research is completed but before commercialization. 3. A person who has been granted approval by the NBA to use a biological resource can transfer the associated knowledge to others without seeking further permission. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q49.Consider the following pairs regarding biodiversity governance bodies and their functions: 1. State Biodiversity Board : Advising the Central Government on conservation matters. 2. National Biodiversity Authority : Regulating requests for commercial utilization of biological resources by Indians. 3. Biodiversity Management Committee : Chronicling of local knowledge relating to biological diversity. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q50.With reference to the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB), consider the following statements: 1. The WCCB is a non-statutory advisory body constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 2. Its primary mandate is to replace the enforcement functions of state governments to centralize wildlife crime control. 3. It was established to complement the efforts of state governments, which are the primary enforcers of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Q51.Consider the following as functions of the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB): 1. Maintenance of minimum ecological flows in the river Ganga. 2. Implementation of obligations under various international conventions and protocols related to wildlife crime. 3. Advising the Government of India on issues relating to wildlife crimes with national and international ramifications. 4. Promotion of water conservation practices including recycling and reuse of water. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q52.Consider the following statements regarding the operational mechanisms of the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB): 1. The WCCB has established a centralized online Wildlife Crime Database Management System for real-time data collection. 2. Operation SAVE KURMA and Operation THUNDERBIRD were initiatives executed to investigate problems of environmental pollution in major rivers. 3. The Bureau is responsible for developing infrastructure and capacity building for scientific and professional investigation into wildlife crime.

Q53.Consider the following statements regarding the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA): 1. It was constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. 2. It is a statutory body established in the year 2009. 3. Its primary role is that of an executing and implementing agency for pollution abatement projects. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q54.With reference to the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA), which of the following statements is correct?

Q55.Consider the following statements: 1. The National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) was established by a special Act of Parliament dedicated solely to the river Ganga. 2. The objective of the NGRBA is to ensure effective abatement of pollution and conservation of the river Ganga. 3. The NGRBA is a coordinating body but lacks the mandate for planning or financing conservation efforts. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q56.With reference to the international framework for managing hazardous wastes, consider the following statements: 1. The Basel Convention's mandate includes regulating the transboundary movements of hazardous and certain other wastes, such as household waste. 2. Recent amendments to the Convention have classified all types of plastic waste as hazardous, subjecting them to its control procedures. 3. The Convention operates on a voluntary basis, providing non-binding guidelines for member countries to follow. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q57.Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) is the world's highest-level decision-making body on the environment. Statement-II: UNEA was created as a measure to strengthen and upgrade the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) following the Rio+20 conference. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q58.Consider the following pairs: 1. Stockholm Convention : Eliminating Persistent Organic Pollutants 2. Champions of the Earth : Highest environmental honour by IUCN 3. Asia Environment Enforcement Awards : Given by the World Bank 4. TRAFFIC : A joint program of WWF and UNEP How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q59.Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA): 1. It was established as the primary outcome of the UN Conference on the Human Environment in Stockholm to upgrade UNEP. 2. It is the world's highest-level decision-making body on the environment, meeting biennially in Nairobi. 3. Its resolutions are legally binding on all UN member states and form the basis of international environmental law. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q60.Examine the following statements: Statement-I: Anthropogenic reactive nitrogen contributes significantly to air pollution, greenhouse gas emissions, and the depletion of stratospheric ozone. Statement-II: The environmental impact of nitrogen is primarily due to high global nitrogen use efficiency in agriculture, leading to surplus accumulation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q61.Consider the following pairs regarding international conventions and their primary mandates: 1. Basel Convention : Complete prohibition of transboundary movement of all waste materials. 2. Stockholm Convention : Phasing out and eliminating Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). 3. Rotterdam Convention : Facilitating Prior Informed Consent (PIC) for trade in hazardous chemicals. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q62.With reference to the concept of 'Just Transition' in the context of environmental policies, consider the following statements: 1. It primarily focuses on providing financial compensation to corporations for phasing out polluting technologies. 2. It emphasizes securing the rights and improving the livelihoods of workers and communities affected by the transition. 3. The principle is exclusively applied to transitions away from fossil fuels and not to other sectors like waste management. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q63.Consider the following statements regarding the international instrument being negotiated to end plastic pollution: 1. The negotiations are conducted under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA). 2. A key objective is to address the full lifecycle of plastic, including its production, design, and disposal. 3. The instrument is intended to be legally binding, similar in status to the Basel and Stockholm Conventions. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q64.Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A 'just transition' framework within a global plastics treaty is critical for addressing the socio-economic impacts on the informal waste sector. Statement-II: The informal waste sector, while often highly efficient in resource recovery, typically operates with significant deficits in social protection, occupational safety, and income security. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q65.Consider the following statements regarding a recent international commitment on financing sustainable development: 1. It is a legally binding treaty that makes climate-related financial disclosures mandatory for all signatory nations. 2. It introduces 'Biodiversity Performance Bonds', linking a nation's borrowing costs to its conservation outcomes. 3. The commitment was adopted under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA). How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q66.With reference to a newly proposed 'Global Green Transition Fund', consider the following statements: 1. It is designed to be administered jointly by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and the World Trade Organization (WTO). 2. A primary objective is to mobilize private capital to help achieve the targets of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework. 3. The fund prioritizes financing for projects that demonstrate 'Ecological Solvency Reporting', a new corporate accountability standard. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q67.With reference to the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA), consider the following statements: 1. It was established as a direct outcome of the UN Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm in 1972. 2. It is the principal global authority for setting the environmental agenda and developing international environmental law. 3. The resolutions passed by the Assembly are legally binding on all member states of the United Nations. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q68.Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Anthropogenic reactive nitrogen is a significant environmental concern, contributing to air pollution, greenhouse gas emissions, and stratospheric ozone depletion. Statement-II: High global nitrogen use efficiency in modern agriculture is the primary cause for the release of excess reactive nitrogen into the atmosphere and water bodies. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q69.Consider the following pairs: Convention : Primary Objective 1. Stockholm Convention : Control of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes 2. Basel Convention : Elimination of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) 3. Rotterdam Convention : Prior Informed Consent procedure for hazardous chemicals How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q70.With reference to major UN environmental awards, consider the following statements: 1. The 'Champions of the Earth' award is the highest UN honour recognizing transformative environmental action from public, private, and civil society sectors. 2. The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) of India was recognized with the Asia Environment Enforcement Award for innovation in combating transboundary environmental crime. 3. The 'Champions of the Earth' award is exclusively conferred upon individuals and does not recognize organizations or institutions. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q71.Consider the following statements regarding international instruments for controlling marine pollution: 1. A global instrument on plastic pollution makes reduction targets legally binding on all signatory nations immediately upon its entry into force. 2. The Basel Convention's amendments regulate the transboundary movement of certain plastic wastes, requiring prior informed consent from importing countries. 3. The United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) is the designated high-level body for negotiating and adopting such global environmental agreements. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q72.With reference to the chemical balance of oceans, consider the following statements: Statement-I: Increased atmospheric deposition of anthropogenic reactive nitrogen compounds into marine environments can contribute to localized ocean acidification. Statement-II: This acidification occurs primarily because atmospheric nitrogen gas (N2) readily dissolves in seawater and subsequently forms nitric acid.

Q73.With reference to the governance of marine resources in Areas Beyond National Jurisdiction (ABNJ), consider the following statements: 1. The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is mandated to regulate all economic activities, including deep-sea fishing and bioprospecting, in the high seas. 2. The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS) provides a framework for the conservation of listed species throughout their migratory range, including in ABNJ. 3. The International Whaling Commission (IWC) enforces a permanent and legally binding ban on all forms of commercial whaling worldwide. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q74.With reference to the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA), consider the following statements: 1. It was established as a direct outcome of the UN Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm in 1972. 2. It is the world's highest-level decision-making body on the environment, with its resolutions being legally binding on all member states. 3. The Assembly meets biennially in Nairobi, Kenya. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q75.Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Anthropogenic reactive nitrogen, particularly in the form of nitrous oxide, contributes to the depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer. Statement-II: Increased nitrogen use efficiency in agriculture universally leads to a decrease in greenhouse gas emissions and an increase in stratospheric ozone. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q76.Consider the following pairs: Convention/Body : Primary Mandate 1. Basel Convention : Regulating trade in endangered species 2. Stockholm Convention : Controlling transboundary movements of hazardous wastes 3. Rotterdam Convention : Procedure for Prior Informed Consent for hazardous chemicals 4. Global Tiger Forum : An inter-governmental body for the conservation of tigers How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q77.With reference to the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA), consider the following statements: 1. It was established as a direct outcome of the 1972 Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment. 2. It is the world's highest-level decision-making body on the environment, with its resolutions being legally binding on all member states. 3. It serves as the governing body of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q78.Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Recent international environmental deliberations have increasingly focused on sustainable nitrogen management. Statement-II: Anthropogenic reactive nitrogen contributes to air pollution and greenhouse gas emissions, while also aiding in the restoration of the stratospheric ozone layer. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q79.With reference to the key outcomes of the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro, consider the following documents: 1. Agenda 21 2. Forest Principles 3. Convention on Biological Diversity 4. Rio Declaration on Environment and Development How many of the above are legally non-binding documents?

Q80.Consider the following consequences of anthropogenic reactive nitrogen pollution in the environment: 1. Eutrophication and hypoxia in aquatic ecosystems. 2. Contribution to acid rain and photochemical smog. 3. Depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer. How many of the above are recognized consequences?

Q81.With reference to the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA), consider the following statements: 1. It was created as a key outcome of the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20). 2. It serves as the world's highest-level decision-making body on environmental matters, meeting biennially. 3. Resolutions passed by the Assembly, such as on 'Sustainable Nitrogen Management', are legally binding on all member states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q82.Statement-I: The Basel Convention regulates the transboundary movement of hazardous wastes and focuses on their environmentally sound management. Statement-II: The Convention's primary list of controlled substances includes persistent organic pollutants (POPs) like hexabromocyclododecane and pentachlorobenzene. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q83.With reference to the United Nations' practice of designating 'International Years' for environmental themes, consider the following statements: 1. The designation is primarily a decision made by the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA). 2. These designations impose legally binding obligations on member states to meet specific conservation targets. 3. Specialized agencies like the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and UNESCO often lead the implementation of such initiatives. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q84.Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The retreat of glaciers and ice sheets is considered a positive feedback mechanism in the context of global climate change. Statement-II: As ice melts, it exposes darker surfaces like water or land, which absorb more solar radiation, leading to further warming and melting.

Q85.With reference to the environmental impacts of glacier retreat, consider the following statements: 1. The contribution of glacial melt to river discharge is most critical during the peak rainy season in monsoon-influenced regions. 2. The formation of unstable moraine-dammed lakes increases the risk of glacial lake outburst floods (GLOFs) in downstream valleys. 3. Persistent organic pollutants (POPs), transported atmospherically and deposited on glaciers, can be re-released into the environment as the ice melts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q86.Consider the following statements regarding the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS): 1. It functions as a framework convention, encouraging Range States to establish regional or global conservation instruments. 2. All agreements and instruments concluded under the CMS framework are legally binding treaties on the signatory nations. 3. Species that would significantly benefit from international cooperation, even if not immediately threatened with extinction, are listed in its Appendix II. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q87.With reference to the Central Asian Flyway (CAF), a significant migratory route for birds, consider the following statements: 1. It is a vast avian migratory route that extends from the northernmost breeding grounds in the Arctic to the southernmost non-breeding grounds in the Indian Ocean. 2. India has developed a National Action Plan dedicated to the conservation of migratory species that utilize this flyway. 3. The flyway is primarily significant for the conservation of several bird species that are endemic to the Indian subcontinent. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q88.Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The conservation of migratory species often necessitates the establishment of international agreements and Memoranda of Understanding between different countries. Statement-II: Species are listed in Appendix II of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) primarily because they are globally threatened with extinction. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q89.With reference to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS), consider the following statements: 1. It acts as a framework Convention, encouraging Range States to conclude regional agreements. 2. Species that would significantly benefit from international cooperation are listed in its Appendix II. 3. All agreements concluded under the aegis of the CMS are legally binding treaties. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q90.Consider the following statements regarding the Central Asian Flyway (CAF): 1. It is a major bird flyway network that covers the vast continental area between the Arctic and Indian Oceans. 2. India has launched a National Action Plan dedicated to conserving migratory species along this flyway. 3. All migratory water bird species found along the CAF are designated as globally threatened. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q91.With reference to the fauna of the Nicobar Islands, consider the following statements: 1. The Nicobar Megapode, a bird that builds nests on the ground, is found widely across the Indian subcontinent. 2. The Saltwater Crocodile, found in the region's mangrove ecosystems, is listed as 'Critically Endangered' on the IUCN Red List. 3. The Giant Leatherback turtle, a marine reptile, has one of its largest global nesting sites in this island group. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q92.Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in India: 1. The Tribunal is bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. 2. The Tribunal has jurisdiction to hear appeals directly arising from the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 3. Decisions of the NGT are binding and can be executed as a decree of a civil court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q93.Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Large-scale coastal infrastructure projects with extensive artificial lighting pose a significant threat to marine turtle populations. Statement-II: Turtle hatchlings are phototactic, instinctively moving towards the brightest light source, which in a natural environment is the moon's reflection on the sea. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q94.Consider the following pairs: 1. Shompen Tribe : A coastal community primarily engaged in fishing and trade. 2. Galathea Bay : A Wildlife Sanctuary known for marine turtle nesting. 3. Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve : Legally established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q95.Consider the following statements regarding an environmental phenomenon observed near certain mining areas: Statement-I: Water bodies in proximity to unscientific coal extraction sites often turn highly acidic and are marked by a distinct reddish-orange precipitate. Statement-II: This process, known as Acid Mine Drainage, is initiated by the release of alkaline compounds from exposed rock strata, which then react with atmospheric oxygen. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q96.With reference to the regulation of mining activities in India, consider the following statements: 1. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is empowered to ban mining activities on grounds of environmental degradation, even in areas under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution. 2. The Sixth Schedule grants Autonomous District Councils exclusive and overriding powers over mineral regulation, making central mining laws non-applicable in these areas. 3. The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, is the primary legislation for mineral regulation but explicitly excludes tribal lands from its purview. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q97.Certain primitive and narrow excavation methods for extracting minerals from thin horizontal seams can lead to severe environmental consequences. Consider the following impacts: 1. Contamination of surface and groundwater sources through Acid Mine Drainage. 2. Increased frequency of landslides due to deforestation and land subsidence. 3. A significant and beneficial rise in the local groundwater table as pits get filled with water. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q98.Consider the following statements regarding the legal protection of the Aravalli Range: 1. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is empowered to take suo motu cognizance of environmental degradation in the Aravallis. 2. A blanket ban on all mining activities across the entire Aravalli range in all states has been permanently enforced by a single parliamentary act. 3. The Supreme Court has designated the entire Aravalli hill system as a 'deemed forest' under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q99.Consider the following two statements: Statement-I: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has the authority to provide relief and compensation for damages to persons and property due to environmental degradation in areas like the Aravallis. Statement-II: The NGT functions as a specialized body under the direct administrative control of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) for adjudicating environmental cases. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q100.With reference to the Aravalli Range, consider the following statements: 1. It acts as a natural barrier checking the eastward spread of the Thar desert. 2. The range is one of the world's oldest fold mountain systems, now eroded into a residual mountain. 3. The Dhok tree (Anogeissus pendula), a key species of the Aravalli forests, is endemic to the Indian subcontinent. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q101.Consider the following pairs: 1. Mangar Bani : Sacred grove protected by local community faith 2. Sariska Tiger Reserve : Part of the Aravalli landscape facing threats from illegal mining 3. Asola Bhatti WLS : An area where groundwater recharge has significantly increased due to afforestation How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q102.Consider the following statements regarding India's principal body for environmental adjudication: 1. It is a statutory body established for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases related to environmental protection. 2. India was the third country globally to establish such a specialized tribunal, following Australia and New Zealand. 3. The Tribunal is mandated to make an endeavour for the disposal of applications or appeals finally within six months of filing. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q103.Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is not bound by the procedure laid down by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Statement-II: The NGT's mandate for expeditious, science-based adjudication requires procedural flexibility, hence it is guided by the principles of natural justice. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q104.With reference to the National Bamboo Mission (NBM), consider the following statements: 1. It is primarily implemented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. 2. One of its objectives is to promote the marketing of bamboo and related handicrafts. 3. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with 100% financial contribution from the Central Government. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q105.Consider the following statements regarding the Biodiversity Conservation & Rural Livelihood Improvement Project (BCRLIP): 1. The project is exclusively funded by a grant from the Global Environment Facility (GEF). 2. It aims to conserve biodiversity in selected landscapes, including within existing wildlife protected areas. 3. It utilizes participatory approaches such as Joint Forest Management (JFM) to link conservation with local livelihoods. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q106.Consider the following statements regarding the institutional framework of the Convention on Wetlands: 1. It is a legally binding treaty administered directly by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 2. The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites maintained as a principal tool of the Convention. 3. International Organization Partners (IOPs), such as the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), have a formal status in the Convention's implementation. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q107.Examine the following statements: Statement-I: A wetland site, once included in the Montreux Record, can be removed from the list. Statement-II: The inclusion of a site in the Montreux Record is due to positive changes in its ecological character resulting from successful conservation efforts. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q108.Consider the following pairs regarding international environmental bodies and their affiliations: 1. TRAFFIC : A joint programme of WWF and IUCN 2. CITES Secretariat : Administered by the United Nations Environment Programme 3. Bonn Convention (CMS) : Concluded under the aegis of the World Bank How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q109.With reference to international biodiversity frameworks, consider the following statements: 1. The Cartagena Protocol primarily deals with the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources. 2. The Nagoya Protocol establishes procedures for regulating the transboundary movement of Living Modified Organisms (LMOs). 3. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is a legally binding international treaty that recognizes conservation as a 'common concern of humankind'. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q110.Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Nagoya Protocol creates greater legal certainty and transparency for both providers and users of genetic resources. Statement-II: It establishes binding obligations on Parties to monitor the utilization of genetic resources and ensure they were accessed in accordance with the provider country's laws. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q111.Consider the following pairs: (Instrument/Act) : (Primary Focus/Mechanism) 1. Cartagena Protocol : Access to genetic resources and benefit-sharing 2. Nagoya Protocol : Safe transfer and handling of LMOs 3. Biological Diversity Act, 2002 : Three-tier structure for regulating access to bio-resources How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q112.With reference to 'Other Effective area-based Conservation Measures' (OECMs), consider the following statements: 1. For an area to be designated as an OECM, its primary management objective must be the long-term, in-situ conservation of biodiversity. 2. The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework includes OECMs as a component for achieving the '30 by 30' conservation target. 3. In India, once an area is identified as an OECM, it is granted the same legal protection status as a Wildlife Sanctuary under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q113.Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The targets set under the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF), such as the '30 by 30' target, are legally binding on all signatory nations of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). Statement-II: The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international legally binding treaty, and therefore all frameworks and targets adopted under its ambit automatically inherit this binding legal status. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q114.In the context of biodiversity governance in India, consider the following statements: 1. The identification and reporting of potential OECMs are primarily the responsibility of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), which also directly manages these sites. 2. Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs), established under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, play a crucial role in documenting local biodiversity, which is essential for identifying potential OECMs. 3. The principles of Access and Benefit-Sharing (ABS) as per the Nagoya Protocol are applicable to OECMs, ensuring equitable sharing of benefits from genetic resources with local communities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q115.With reference to international biodiversity governance frameworks, consider the following statements: 1. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is a legally binding multilateral treaty with objectives covering conservation, sustainable use, and benefit-sharing. 2. The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety specifically focuses on the transboundary movement of Living Modified Organisms (LMOs). 3. The Nagoya Protocol provides a voluntary framework for access to genetic resources, encouraging but not obligating parties to share benefits. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q116.Consider the following statements regarding the regulation of Living Modified Organisms (LMOs): Statement-I: The Advance Informed Agreement (AIA) procedure mandates that an exporting country must receive explicit consent from an importing country before the first transboundary movement of an LMO intended for direct introduction into the environment. Statement-II: The AIA procedure is the primary mechanism for regulating LMOs intended for direct use as food or feed, or for processing (LMOs-FFP). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q117.Consider the following pairs related to international biodiversity protocols: 1. Nagoya Protocol : Establishes a legal framework for fair and equitable benefit-sharing from genetic resources. 2. Cartagena Protocol : Provides rules for liability and redress for damage to biodiversity from LMOs. 3. Biosafety Clearing-House : A central mechanism for information exchange on LMOs under the Cartagena Protocol. 4. Mutually Agreed Terms : A core component of the Nagoya Protocol for defining benefit-sharing conditions. How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q118.With reference to the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 of India, consider the following statements: 1. The Act was enacted to fulfill India's obligations under the legally binding Convention on Biological Diversity. 2. It establishes a three-tier structure comprising the National Biodiversity Authority, State Biodiversity Boards, and Biodiversity Management Committees. 3. The Act recognizes the sovereign rights of the Indian State over its biological resources, superseding all local community claims. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q119.Consider the following statements regarding the international agreement on marine biological diversity of areas beyond national jurisdiction: 1. The agreement establishes a legally binding framework for sharing both monetary and non-monetary benefits derived from Marine Genetic Resources (MGRs). 2. The principles of Access and Benefit-Sharing (ABS) under this agreement supersede and replace the Nagoya Protocol for all marine environments. 3. The establishment of Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) in the high seas under the agreement requires a unanimous consensus of all UN member states. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q120.Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Deep-sea hydrothermal vents are considered hotspots for unique Marine Genetic Resources (MGRs) with high potential for biotechnological applications. Statement-II: The primary producers in these ecosystems are extremophiles that harness geothermal energy for photosynthesis to create organic matter in the absence of sunlight. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q121.With reference to the governance of biological resources concerning India, consider the following statements: 1. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is the statutory body for regulating access to biological resources within India's Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). 2. The Ministry of Earth Sciences is the nodal ministry for implementing India's deep-ocean exploration missions in areas beyond national jurisdiction. 3. All benefits arising from the use of genetic resources from the high seas by Indian entities are governed by the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q122.With reference to the international framework for biosafety, consider the following statements: 1. The Advance Informed Agreement (AIA) procedure is mandatory for all transboundary movements of Living Modified Organisms (LMOs), including those intended for food or feed. 2. The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity, focusing on the safe transfer and handling of LMOs. 3. The Nagoya-Kuala Lumpur Supplementary Protocol establishes the primary framework for benefit-sharing arising from the use of LMOs. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q123.Consider the following statements regarding the Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits: 1. It creates an obligation for parties to take measures ensuring that genetic resources utilized within their jurisdiction have been accessed with Prior Informed Consent. 2. The protocol's scope on benefit-sharing is limited to monetary benefits, such as royalties from commercialization. 3. It extends its provisions to traditional knowledge associated with genetic resources held by indigenous and local communities. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q124.Given below are two statements: Statement-I: The Biological Diversity Act, 2002, establishes a three-tier structure comprising the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs), and Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs). Statement-II: Under this Act, the Biodiversity Management Committees at the local level are the apex bodies for regulating access to biological resources and ensuring equitable benefit-sharing across the country. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q125.With reference to the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety, consider the following statements: 1. The Advance Informed Agreement (AIA) procedure requires the Party of import to formally notify the Party of export before the first shipment of a Living Modified Organism (LMO). 2. The protocol establishes procedures for LMOs intended for direct introduction into the environment, but excludes those intended for food, feed, or processing. 3. Shipments of LMOs across borders must be accompanied by documentation that identifies the organism and specifies requirements for its safe handling and transport. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q126.Consider the following statements regarding the Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and Benefit-Sharing: 1. It provides a transparent legal framework for the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources. 2. It addresses traditional knowledge associated with genetic resources, requiring Parties to ensure prior informed consent from indigenous and local communities. 3. Compliance with the protocol relies on voluntary measures, as it does not establish specific obligations for Parties to monitor the utilization of genetic resources. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q127.Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India enacted the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, which established a three-tier structure to regulate access to its biological resources. Statement-II: The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is a legally binding international treaty that requires signatory nations to develop national strategies for biodiversity conservation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q128.Consider the following pairs: Protocol : Primary Focus 1. Cartagena Protocol : Liability and redress for damage resulting from Living Modified Organisms (LMOs). 2. Nagoya Protocol : Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources. 3. Nagoya-Kuala Lumpur Supplementary Protocol : Procedures for regulating the transboundary movement of LMOs. How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q129.With reference to the United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF), consider the following statements: 1. It was established as a subsidiary body of the UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). 2. It adopted the first-ever legally binding international instrument dedicated to sustainable forest management. 3. One of its Global Objectives is to reverse the decline in official development assistance for sustainable forest management. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q130.Consider the following statements regarding international forest governance: Statement-I: The United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF) provides a platform for policy dialogue to promote the management, conservation, and sustainable development of all types of forests. Statement-II: The UNFF is a specialized agency of the United Nations, possessing an independent mandate and budget similar to the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q131.Consider the following pairs: 1. International Tropical Timber Organization (ITTO) : Intergovernmental body concerned with both trade and sustainable management of tropical forests. 2. Global Objectives on Forests : Aims to increase the proportion of forest products from sustainably managed forests. 3. Non-legally Binding Instrument (NIBI) : Adopted by the Intergovernmental Panel on Forests (IPF). How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q132.With reference to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), consider the following statements: 1. It is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management. 2. It defines 'desertification' as the physical expansion of existing deserts into arid and semi-arid regions. 3. The convention is primarily committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging local participation in combating land degradation. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q133.Consider the following statements regarding international efforts related to land management: 1. The inclusion of land tenure as a new thematic area under the UNCCD acknowledges its role in addressing land degradation. 2. The 'Great Green Wall Initiative' is an Africa-led project focused on restoring degraded land and creating green jobs. 3. The 'Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS)' is a flagship program directly administered by the UNCCD Secretariat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q134.Examine the following statements: Statement-I: International conventions increasingly recognize desertification, land degradation, and drought (DLDD) as a significant driver of human migration. Statement-II: The long-term loss of ecosystem function and productivity from land degradation enhances livelihood security, thereby reducing the impetus for migration. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?