Question 1

With reference to the levels of biodiversity, consider the following statements:
1. Genetic diversity refers to the different types of habitats, such as corals, grasslands, and mangroves.
2. Species diversity is primarily concerned with the variation in genes within a particular species.
3. Ecosystem diversity is influenced by the nature of the ecosystem, where a change in climatic conditions can lead to a change in the predominant species.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. It describes ecosystem diversity, which refers to different types of habitats. Genetic diversity is concerned with the variation in genes within a particular species. Statement 2 is incorrect. It describes genetic diversity. Species diversity refers to the variety of different living organisms on Earth. Statement 3 is correct. The variety of species in an ecosystem is influenced by its nature, as species best adapted to a changing environment become predominant.

Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding species characteristics and relationships:
1. The social hierarchy of elephants is dominated by a single older male, leading a unit of adult females and their offspring.
2. The genetic makeup of humans and chimpanzees is approximately 98.4 per cent identical.
3. The variety of species within an ecosystem is generally independent of the physical and climatic nature of that ecosystem.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. Elephant social units are led by a single older female, the matriarch, not a male. Statement 2 is correct. Closely-related species like humans and chimpanzees share about 98.4 per cent of their genes. Statement 3 is incorrect. The diversity of species in an ecosystem is influenced by the nature of the ecosystem, as each species adapts to a particular kind of environment.

Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding biodiversity conservation and frameworks:
1. The definition of biodiversity adopted at the United Nations Earth Summit (1992) is limited to terrestrial and marine ecosystems, excluding other aquatic systems.
2. Genetic diversity is a crucial factor that allows species to adapt to changing environments.
3. India's National Biodiversity Targets are formulated as a standalone domestic policy, without alignment to any global conservation targets.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The definition of biodiversity includes variability among living organisms from all sources, explicitly mentioning 'terrestrial, marine and other aquatic ecosystems'. Statement 2 is correct. Genetic diversity provides the variation that allows species to adapt to changing environments, which ensures the survival of the population. Statement 3 is incorrect. National Biodiversity Targets are in line with the 20 global Aichi Targets.

Question 4

With reference to Arthropods, consider the following statements:
1. Arachnids are characterized by the presence of antennae, two body parts, and four pairs of legs.
2. Insects have an exoskeleton, a body consisting of three parts, and six legs.
3. Crustaceans are arthropods that live exclusively in marine environments.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. Arachnids do not have antennae. They have two body parts and four pairs of legs. Statement 2 is correct. An insect's body consists of 3 parts, 6 legs, and an exoskeleton that covers their entire body. Statement 3 is incorrect. Crustaceans live mostly in the ocean or other waters, not exclusively in marine environments.

Question 5

Consider the following pairs:
1. Mollusk : Exclusively aquatic habitat
2. Echinoderm : Radially arranged arms or spines
3. Protozoa : Simple, multicelled animal
4. Annelid : Possesses limbs with joints

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only one pair. Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Some mollusks, such as the snail and slug, live on land. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Most echinoderms have arms or spines that radiate from the center of their body. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Protozoa are simple, single-celled animals. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. Annelids do not have any limbs; it is arthropods that have limbs with joints.

Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding animal fauna:
1. All invertebrates possess a hard, external skeleton for protection.
2. Pythons are constricting invertebrates that swallow their prey whole.
3. Annelids are organisms with segmented bodies and well-developed internal organs but no limbs.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. Many invertebrates, such as jellyfish or worms, have a fluid-filled, hydrostatic skeleton, not a hard external one. Statement 2 is incorrect. Pythons are constrictors, but they are vertebrates (reptiles), not invertebrates. Statement 3 is correct. Annelids have bodies that are divided into segments, possess very well-developed internal organs, and do not have any limbs.

Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding certain floral and related groups in India:
1. Fungi are autotrophic plants characterized by the presence of chlorophyll, enabling them to manufacture their own food.
2. In the symbiotic relationship of a lichen, the fungal component is responsible for manufacturing food, which then becomes available to the alga.
3. The highest diversity of fungi in India is recorded in the Western Ghats.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. Fungi are non-green plants characterized by a total absence of chlorophyll; they are not autotrophic. They grow as saprophytes on dead organic matter or as parasites on living hosts. It is algae that are autotrophic and possess chlorophyll.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The roles are reversed. In a lichen, the algal component manufactures food which becomes available to the fungus. The fungus, in turn, absorbs and retains water, keeping the algal cells moist.
Statement 3 is correct. The maximum diversity of fungi is found in the Western Ghats, followed by the eastern Himalaya and the western Himalaya.

Question 8

With reference to different plant groups, consider the following statements:
1. Bryophytes are plants whose bodies are differentiated into a small stem and simple leaves, and they possess true roots for anchorage.
2. Pteridophytes are terrestrial plants that flourish in moist places but are characteristically not found in aquatic environments like wetlands or streams.
3. Gymnosperms are naked-seeded plants where ovules are directly pollinated and there is no formation of fruit.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. While the plant body of bryophytes is differentiated into a small stem and simple leaves, true roots are absent.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Pteridophytes flourish well in moist and shady places, and some of them are aquatic. They are most common in wetlands, though rare in rivers and streams.
Statement 3 is correct. Gymnosperms are naked-seeded plants. Their ovules are present on the surface of carpels and are directly pollinated. They lack an ovary, style, and stigma, and consequently, do not produce fruit.

Question 9

Consider the following statements:
1. Algae found in marine environments are typically red or brown, whereas those in freshwater are generally green or blue-green.
2. In Gymnosperms, the Pine family is the largest, and genera like Gnetum and Cycas are primarily confined to North Eastern India and the Ghats.
3. All snakes smell with their tongues by touching a special sensory spot called the organ on the roof of the mouth.
4. Pteridophytes are most commonly found in groundwater and are universally distributed in rivers and streams.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only three. Statement 1 is correct. Freshwater algae are generally green or blue-green in colour, whereas marine algae are red or brown.
Statement 2 is correct. Pine is the largest family of Gymnosperms. Gnetum and Cycas are mostly confined to the North Eastern region, Eastern and Western Ghats, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
Statement 3 is correct. When a snake sticks out its tongue, it collects scents. When the tongue goes back into the mouth, its forks touch a special sensory spot called the organ on the roof of the mouth, which tells the snake what it smells.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Pteridophytes are most common in wetlands, rare in rivers and streams, and are not found in ground water.

Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding floral endemism in India:
1. The Eastern Himalaya and north-eastern region have a higher number of endemic floral species than Peninsular India.
2. The Andaman & Nicobar islands possess a greater count of endemic floral species compared to the North-western Himalaya.
3. Peninsular India, encompassing the Western and Eastern Ghats, holds the highest number of endemic floral species among the listed regions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. Peninsular India has about 2,600 endemic floral species, which is higher than the approximately 2,500 species in the Eastern Himalaya and north-eastern region. Statement 2 is incorrect. The North-western Himalaya has about 800 endemic species, while the Andaman & Nicobar islands have about 250. Statement 3 is correct. With approximately 2,600 species, Peninsular India has the highest number of endemic floral species among the four regions mentioned.

Question 11

Consider the following pairs regarding India's global rank in livestock population:
1. Buffaloes : First
2. Cattle : Third
3. Sheep : Second
4. Camels : Sixth
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is correctly matched; India ranks first in the world's buffalo population. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched; India ranks second, not third, in the cattle population. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched; India ranks third, not second, in the sheep population. Pair 4 is correctly matched; India ranks sixth in the world's camel population. Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Question 12

With reference to genetic diversity and animal husbandry in India, consider the following statements:
1. The widespread introduction of exotic breeds has led to an expansion of the total genetic variability within India's local livestock breeds.
2. The National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) is the primary institution for the conservation of unique livestock accessions as base collections.
3. The vast majority of domestic livestock in India is reared under high-input, intensive production systems.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

None. Statement 1 is incorrect. The introduction of exotic breeds has led to a reduction in the total genetic variability and population size of many local breeds. Statement 2 is incorrect. The NBPGR is primarily responsible for the conservation of plant genetic resources, not livestock. Statement 3 is incorrect. The majority (85%) of domestic livestock in India is reared under low-input production systems, not high-input systems.

Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding the flora of the Himalayan mountain system:
1. The Himalayan foothills are characterized by natural monsoon evergreen forests with dominant species like sal and giant bamboos.
2. The high-altitude region of the Western Himalayas features coniferous forests of pine and fir, with an undergrowth of scrubby rhododendrons.
3. The Eastern Himalayas are characterized by dwarf hill bamboo and birch forests mixed with alpine pastures.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is correct. The Himalayan foothills contain natural monsoon evergreen and semi-evergreen forests where dominant species include sal, silk-cotton trees, and giant bamboos. Statement 2 is incorrect. Coniferous forests of pine, fir, yew, and junipers with an undergrowth of scrubby rhododendrons are characteristic of the Eastern Himalayas, not the Western Himalayas. Statement 3 is incorrect. Dwarf hill bamboo and birch forests mixed with alpine pastures are features of the high-altitude region of the Western Himalayas, not the Eastern Himalayas.

Question 14

With reference to the mangrove swamps of Sunderbans, consider the following statements:
1. In the floral zonation, Heritiera forests are found in the lower tidal zones as pioneer species.
2. The Sunderbans are located in the delta formed by the confluence of the Ganges and Brahmaputra rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal.
3. Phoenix palms, in association with Excoecaria, are found in the zone immediately above the pioneer trees like Sonneratia.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. Heritiera forests are found in the highest portion of the Sunderbans, not the lower tidal zones. The pioneer trees in the lower tidal zones are Sonneratia and Avicennia. Statement 2 is correct. The Sunderbans are the delta of the Ganges where both the Brahmaputra and Ganges join and drain into the Bay of Bengal. Statement 3 is incorrect. The zone immediately above the pioneer trees consists of Rhizophora, Bruguiera, and Excoecaria-Ceriops forests. The supporting forests of Phoenix are found at a level above this zone.

Question 15

Consider the following pairs:
      Region/Ecosystem      : Dominant/Characteristic Flora
1.   Tropical Rainforest    : Ebony trees
2.   Indian Desert          : Giant Dipterocarpus
3.   Western Himalayas      : Oaks and Magnolias
4.   Andaman & Nicobar      : Mangroves
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is correctly matched. Ebony trees are noted to predominate in the tropical rainforests of the Western Ghats. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Giant Dipterocarpus is a dominant tree in the tropical rainforests of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, not the Indian Desert, which features thorny trees and cacti. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Oaks and magnolias are characteristic flora of the Eastern Himalayas, not the Western Himalayas. Pair 4 is correctly matched. Mangroves are distributed in the coastal areas of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Question 16

With reference to the measurement of biodiversity, consider the following statements:
1. Alpha diversity is a measure of the number of species within a particular ecosystem.
2. Beta diversity represents the sum of species diversity across two distinct ecosystems.
3. Gamma diversity is a measure of the overall diversity for different ecosystems within a region.

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Alpha diversity quantifies the diversity within a specific area or ecosystem, often expressed as the number of species (species richness). Statement 2 is incorrect. Beta diversity is not a sum; it is a comparative measure of diversity between ecosystems, quantifying the change in species composition from one to another. Statement 3 is correct. Gamma diversity provides a measure of the total biodiversity across a large geographical scale containing multiple ecosystems.

Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding biodiversity metrics:
1. According to a specific ratio-based measurement of alpha diversity, a value of 'one' represents the presence of only a single species.
2. Low species evenness indicates that most species in an ecosystem are present in similar proportions.
3. Species richness is a measure of the proportion of different species at a given site.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is correct. In the context of the specified ratio for measuring alpha diversity, a value of 'one' signifies that only one species is present, while 'zero' would represent infinite diversity. Statement 2 is incorrect. Low species evenness indicates the opposite; it means that a few species dominate the site in terms of numbers, while other species are much less abundant. Statement 3 is incorrect. Species richness is the measure of the number of species found in a community, not their proportion. The proportion of species is measured by species evenness.

Question 18

With reference to the white rhinoceros, consider the following statements:
1. The name 'white rhinoceros' is derived from an English word 'weit' which was misinterpreted by Afrikaans speakers.
2. A key morphological feature of this species is a prehensile, hooked upper lip.
3. It is also known as the square-lipped rhinoceros.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The causality is reversed; the name originates from the Afrikaans word 'weit' (meaning wide), which was misinterpreted as 'white' by early English settlers. Statement 2 is incorrect. The white rhinoceros is characterized by the lack of a prehensile 'hook' on its upper lip, which is a feature of some other rhino species. Statement 3 is correct. The white rhinoceros is also referred to as the square-lipped rhinoceros, a name that describes the shape of its mouth.

Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding ecological processes and food webs:
1. The fundamental building blocks, including carbon and nitrogen, are identical for both plants and animals.
2. Green plants are capable of absorbing elemental nitrogen directly from the atmosphere as part of the photosynthetic process.
3. The extinction of a single species within a food web can increase the extinction risk for other species, including humans.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct. The building blocks of plants, animals, and humans are identical, composed of elements like carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, and hydrogen. Statement 2 is incorrect. Green plants absorb nitrogen from the soil through their roots; they cannot absorb it directly from the air. Photosynthesis is the process of using sunlight and water for energy production, not nitrogen fixation from the atmosphere. Statement 3 is correct. The interconnectedness of the food web means that the removal of one species can break the chain, negatively impacting other species and moving them, including humans, closer to extinction.

Question 20

With reference to the services provided by biodiversity, consider the following statements:
1. The provision of medicinal resources and pharmaceutical drugs is classified as an ecosystem service.
2. The maintenance of ecosystems and recovery from unpredictable events are considered biological services.
3. Research, education, and monitoring activities related to biodiversity are categorized as social services.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The provision of medicinal resources and pharmaceutical drugs is classified as a biological service, not an ecosystem service. Statement 2 is incorrect. The maintenance of ecosystems and recovery from unpredictable events are categorized as ecosystem services, not biological services. Statement 3 is correct. Social services provided by biodiversity include research, education, monitoring, recreation, and cultural values.

Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB) initiative:
1. TEEB was launched in 2007 as a joint initiative by Germany and the European Commission.
2. A primary objective of TEEB is to enable practical actions by integrating expertise from the fields of science, economics, and policy.
3. The TEEB-India Initiative (TII) is an international program designed to assess the business risks and opportunities related to global biodiversity loss.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct. The TEEB initiative was launched by Germany and the European Commission in 2007. Statement 2 is correct. TEEB's objective is to draw together expertise from science, economics, and policy to enable practical actions in response to biodiversity loss. Statement 3 is incorrect. The TEEB-India Initiative (TII) is a national-level initiative launched by the Ministry to highlight the economic consequences of biodiversity loss specifically within India, not an international program focused on global business risks.

Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding the causes of biodiversity loss:
1. The destruction of a habitat essential for a species' survival is a less common cause of biodiversity loss compared to the direct destruction of the species itself.
2. Extinction of species due to environmental reasons, such as ecological substitutions, is caused exclusively by natural phenomena.
3. The hunting of species for sport is identified as a direct cause for their extinction.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The loss of biodiversity due to habitat damage is more common than the destruction of a particular species, as habitat destruction is an inevitable fallout of development. Statement 2 is incorrect. Extinction of species due to environmental reasons like ecological substitutions can be caused by either nature or man. Statement 3 is correct. The extinction of species takes place when they are hunted as sport or for food.

Question 23

With reference to the causes of biodiversity loss, consider the following statements:
1. Rivalry among species is classified as a man-made cause.
2. The filling up of wetlands is categorized as a natural cause.
3. Lack of pollination is identified as a natural cause.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. Rivalry among species is listed as a natural cause of biodiversity loss. Statement 2 is incorrect. The filling up of wetlands is listed as a man-made cause of biodiversity loss. Statement 3 is correct. Lack of pollination is listed among the natural causes for biodiversity loss.

Question 24

Consider the following pairs regarding man-made causes of biodiversity loss:
1. Extension of agriculture : Habitat destruction
2. Hunting & poaching : Uncontrolled commercial exploitation
3. Filling up of wetlands : Destruction of coastal areas
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched in the context of the distinct categories provided?

Accepted Answer

Only one pair. Pair 1 is correctly matched. Extension of agriculture is a form of habitat destruction. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Hunting & poaching is listed as a separate and distinct man-made cause from uncontrolled commercial exploitation. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Filling up of wetlands and destruction of coastal areas are listed as two separate and distinct man-made causes of biodiversity loss.

Question 25

With reference to biodiversity conservation strategies, consider the following statements:
1. The establishment of National Parks and Reserved Forests are examples of ex-situ conservation.
2. Reintroduction of a species into a habitat from which it has become extinct is a form of in-situ conservation.
3. Seed banks and botanical gardens are key centres for in-situ conservation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

None. Statement 1 is incorrect. National parks and Reserved forests are forms of in-situ conservation, which involves conserving animals and plants in their natural habitats. Statement 2 is incorrect. The reintroduction of an animal or plant into a habitat from where it has become extinct is a form of ex-situ conservation. Statement 3 is incorrect. Seed banks and botanical gardens are important centres for ex-situ conservation, which involves conserving biodiversity outside the areas where species naturally occur.

Question 26

Consider the following statements regarding certain aquatic species:
1. Eels possess gills for respiration.
2. Sea snakes are required to surface for atmospheric air.
3. Both Eels and Sea Snakes belong to the fish family.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Eels are part of the fish family and are equipped with gills for breathing. Statement 2 is correct. Sea snakes do not have gills but possess lungs, which necessitates their travel to the surface for air. Statement 3 is incorrect. While Eels are part of the fish family, Sea Snakes are reptiles.

Question 27

Consider the following statements regarding conservation establishments:
1. The primary initial purpose of zoos was wildlife conservation and environmental education.
2. Botanical gardens serve as germplasm collections and facilitate the development of new plant hybrids.
3. A zoo, by definition, includes establishments of licensed dealers in captive animals.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The initial purpose of zoos was entertainment; they have since transformed into centres for wildlife conservation and environmental education. Statement 2 is correct. Among the purposes of botanical gardens are acting as a germplasm collection and helping in the development of new hybrids. Statement 3 is incorrect. The definition of a zoo explicitly excludes an establishment of a licensed dealer in captive animals.

Question 28

With reference to the Red Data Book, consider the following statements:
1. It was first issued by the IUCN's Special Survival Commission as a guide for the management of listed species.
2. In this publication, green pages are used to list species that are critically endangered.
3. The information for endangered mammals and birds is generally less extensive than for other groups of organisms.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is correct. The Red Data Book was first issued in 1966 by the IUCN's Special Survival Commission as a guide for the formulation, preservation, and management of species listed. Statement 2 is incorrect. Pink pages are used for critically endangered species. Green pages are used for species that were formerly endangered but have now recovered to a point where they are no longer threatened. Statement 3 is incorrect. The information for endangered mammals and birds is more extensive, not less extensive, than for other groups of animals and plants.

Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding the IUCN classification criteria for conservation priority:
1. A taxon is classified as Endangered (EN) if its population size is estimated to number fewer than 50 mature individuals.
2. A quantitative analysis showing a probability of extinction in the wild of at least 50% within 10 years is a criterion for a taxon to be classified as Critically Endangered (CR).
3. A reduction in population of more than 90% over the last 10 years is a criterion for a taxon to be classified as Endangered (EN).

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. A population size of fewer than 250 mature individuals is a criterion for Endangered (EN), whereas a population size of less than 50 mature individuals is a criterion for Critically Endangered (CR). Statement 2 is correct. A quantitative analysis showing the probability of extinction in the wild is at least 50% in 10 years is one of the criteria for the Critically Endangered (CR) category. Statement 3 is incorrect. A reduction in population of more than 90% over the last 10 years is a criterion for Critically Endangered (CR), not Endangered (EN). The criterion for EN is a reduction of 70% over the last 10 years.

Question 30

Consider the following pairs:

Category : Definition
1. Extinct (EX) : A taxon known only to survive in cultivation, in captivity, or as a naturalized population outside its past range.
2. Extinct in the Wild (EW) : A taxon for which there is no reasonable doubt that the last individual has died.
3. Critically Endangered (CR) : A taxon considered to be facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only one pair. Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. The definition provided describes a taxon that is Extinct in the Wild (EW). A taxon is Extinct (EX) when there is no reasonable doubt that the last individual has died. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The definition provided describes a taxon that is Extinct (EX). A taxon is Extinct in the Wild (EW) when it is known only to survive in cultivation, in captivity, or as a naturalized population well outside the past range. Pair 3 is correctly matched. A taxon is Critically Endangered (CR) when the best available evidence indicates it is facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.

Question 31

Consider the following statements regarding keystone species:
1. All top predators, including elephants and crocodiles, are considered keystone species.
2. The primary role of a keystone species is to act as an early warning for environmental changes like pollution.
3. The loss of a keystone species, such as certain bats, can adversely influence vegetation structure by affecting plant regeneration.

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct. Top predators like Tiger, Lion, Crocodile, and Elephant are explicitly mentioned as keystone species. Statement 2 is incorrect. The role described, acting as an early warning for environmental changes, is characteristic of an indicator species, not a keystone species. A keystone species' role is defined by its impact on the abundance of other species. Statement 3 is correct. The example of bats is provided, where their reduction makes regeneration of certain plants difficult, thereby changing the vegetation structure.

Question 32

Consider the following pairs:
1. Lichens : Indicator for sulfur dioxide sensitivity
2. Corals : Foundation species
3. Elephant : Indicator species

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs are correctly matched. Pair 1 is correctly matched. Lichens are described as indicators of air quality and are sensitive to sulfur dioxide. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Corals in coral reefs are given as an example of a foundation species, which is a dominant primary producer. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The elephant is listed as an example of a top predator and a keystone species, not an indicator species.

Question 33

With reference to ecological roles, consider the following statements:
1. A foundation species is a species whose loss from an ecosystem leads to major changes in the abundance of at least one other species.
2. An indicator species, such as an amphibian, can signify the presence of global warming or air pollution.
3. Kelp is an example of a dominant primary producer and is classified as a keystone species.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. The definition provided—a species whose loss leads to major changes in the abundance of other species—describes a keystone species, not a foundation species. Statement 2 is correct. Amphibians are cited as indicator species that can indicate conditions such as global warming and air pollution. Statement 3 is incorrect. While kelp is correctly identified as a dominant primary producer, it is given as an example of a foundation species, not a keystone species.

Question 34

With reference to the biogeographical classification of India, consider the following statements:
1. India is classified into ten distinct biomes based on climate patterns and biotic interactions.
2. The classification by Rodgers and Panwar (1988) described 25 biogeographic zones for India.
3. The Indian region is composed of five biogeographic realms.

Accepted Answer

None. Statement 1 is incorrect. India is classified into five biomes: Tropical Humid Forests, Tropical Dry or Deciduous Forests, Warm deserts and semi-deserts, Coniferous forests, and Alpine meadows. Statement 2 is incorrect. The classification by Rodgers and Panwar described 10 biogeographic zones, which were further divided into 25 biogeographic provinces. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Indian region is composed of two realms: the Palearctic Realm (representing the Himalayan region) and the Malayan Realm (representing the rest of the sub-continent).

Question 35

Consider the following pairs regarding India's biogeographic zones and their approximate share of the country's landmass:
1. Deccan Peninsula : 43.0%
2. Gangetic Plain : 15.6%
3. Himalayas : 5.8%
4. Trans-Himalayas : 5.7%
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Deccan peninsula is the largest zone, covering 43.0% of the landmass. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The Gangetic plain covers 11.0% of the landmass, whereas the Semi-arid zone covers 15.6%. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Himalayas comprise 7.2% of the country's landmass, whereas the Western Ghats cover 5.8%. Pair 4 is correctly matched. The Trans-Himalayas, an extension of the Tibetan plateau, comprise 5.7% of the country's landmass. Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Question 36

Consider the following statements:
1. The majority of the Indian sub-continent's landmass is represented by the Palearctic Realm.
2. A Biogeographic Province is defined as a continent or sub-continent sized area with unifying features of geography and fauna & flora.
3. Phyto-geography is the branch of biogeography that deals with the migration and distribution of animals.

Accepted Answer

None. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Himalayan region is represented by the Palearctic Realm, while 'the rest of the sub-continent', which constitutes the majority of the landmass, is represented by the Malayan Realm. Statement 2 is incorrect. The provided definition is for a Biogeographic Realm, not a Province. A Biogeographic Province is a subdivision of a realm. Statement 3 is incorrect. Phyto-geography deals with plant geography. The branch that deals with the migration and distribution of animals is Zoogeography.

Question 37

Consider the following statements regarding different classes of vertebrates:
1. Reptiles are characterized by moist, smooth skin and are exclusively cold-blooded.
2. Aves are warm-blooded vertebrates that possess feathers and have external ears that stick out.
3. Amphibians are cold-blooded, can utilize both lungs and gills for respiration, and often have webbed feet.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect. Reptiles have dry, scaly skin, not moist, smooth skin which is a characteristic of amphibians. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Aves are warm-blooded and have feathers, they possess ear holes instead of external ears that stick out; the latter is a feature of land-dwelling mammals. Statement 3 is correct. Amphibians are defined as being cold-blooded, breathing with both lungs and gills, and having webbed feet.

Question 38

Consider the following pairs:
1. Cetaceans : Water-living mammals with hind limbs and a blowhole.
2. Elephants : Use of large, vascularized ears for thermoregulation.
3. Fishes : Cold-blooded vertebrates that breathe with gills and give birth to live young.

Accepted Answer

Only one pair is correctly matched.. Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Cetaceans are a group of water-living mammals that are characterized by having no hind limbs. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Elephants' ears are equipped with an intricate web of blood vessels and function as cooling devices to lower blood temperature. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. While fishes are cold-blooded and breathe with gills, they typically lay eggs, whereas giving birth to live young is a characteristic of mammals.

Question 39

With reference to the classification of vertebrates, consider the following statements:
1. Both Aves and Mammals are warm-blooded.
2. A common feature between Reptiles and Fishes is the presence of scales and the use of lungs for respiration.
3. Giving birth to live young is a reproductive method found in both Mammals and Aves.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is correct. Both Aves (birds) and Mammals are described as being warm-blooded. Statement 2 is incorrect. While both may have scales, fishes breathe under water using gills, not lungs. Lungs are used for respiration by reptiles. Statement 3 is incorrect. Mammals give birth to live young, but Aves (birds) lay eggs.

Question 40

Consider the following statements regarding the ecological impacts of converting diverse natural habitats into agricultural landscapes:
1. It often leads to a significant increase in local species richness by introducing new crop varieties.
2. It can cause eutrophication in adjacent aquatic ecosystems due to nutrient runoff.
3. It frequently results in habitat fragmentation, which can isolate wildlife populations and reduce genetic exchange.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect. Converting diverse habitats to agriculture, especially monocultures, drastically reduces local species richness by replacing complex ecosystems with a single or few species. Statement 2 is correct. Runoff of nitrogen and phosphorus from fertilizers used in agriculture leads to nutrient enrichment (eutrophication) in water bodies, causing algal blooms and oxygen depletion. Statement 3 is correct. Agricultural expansion breaks up large, contiguous habitats into smaller, isolated patches, a process known as fragmentation, which is a major threat to biodiversity.

Question 41

Examine the following two statements:

Statement-I: The expansion of agricultural frontiers into forested areas often leads to a decline in specialist species, while generalist species may thrive.

Statement-II: The 'edge effect' created by habitat fragmentation alters microclimatic conditions like light and humidity, creating environments that are unsuitable for interior-dwelling specialist species.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.. Statement-I is correct. Specialist species have narrow ecological niches and are adapted to stable, interior forest conditions. Generalist species can adapt to a wider range of conditions. Agricultural expansion fragments habitats, disfavoring specialists. Statement-II is also correct. The 'edge effect' refers to the changes in environmental conditions at the boundary of two different habitats, such as a forest and a farm field. These changes, including increased light, wind, and temperature fluctuations, favor adaptable generalist species over sensitive specialist species adapted to the forest interior. Therefore, Statement-II provides a direct ecological mechanism explaining the phenomenon described in Statement-I.

Question 42

With reference to mitigating the impacts of agriculture on biodiversity, consider the following statements:
1. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) imposes legally binding penalties on member countries that fail to halt agriculture-induced biodiversity loss.
2. Practices like agroforestry and integrated pest management are considered methods to enhance biodiversity within agricultural systems.
3. The conversion of wetlands and grasslands for agricultural purposes is a significant driver of habitat loss for many faunal species.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) operates on the basis of national determination and reporting. While it sets goals and frameworks (like the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework), its provisions are not directly enforceable with penalties in the manner of a domestic law; implementation is a matter of national sovereignty. It is not a supranational enforcement body. Statement 2 is correct. Agroforestry (integrating trees with crops) and Integrated Pest Management (using ecological methods to control pests) are well-recognized strategies that increase habitat complexity and reduce chemical use, thereby supporting greater biodiversity. Statement 3 is correct. Wetlands and grasslands are unique, highly productive ecosystems. Their conversion to farmland is a primary cause of habitat destruction globally, affecting a wide range of species, including migratory birds, insects, and mammals.

Aquatic Ecosystem

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