Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding the division of powers in the Indian Constitution:
1. The Constitution divides legislative, executive, and financial powers between the Centre and the states.
2. The Constitution establishes a divided judicial system to separately enforce Central and state laws.
3. For the effective operation of the federal system, the Centre and states are expected to operate with maximum autonomy and minimal coordination.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

2 and 3 only. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Constitution has established an integrated judicial system, not a divided one. Statement 3 is incorrect because the text emphasizes that maximum harmony and coordination, not minimal, are essential for the federal system's effective operation.

Question 2

Statement I: The Constitution of India, being federal in structure, divides all powers between the Centre and the states.
Statement II: The Indian Constitution has established an integrated judicial system to enforce both Central and state laws.

Accepted Answer

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.. Statement I is incorrect because the Constitution does not divide 'all' powers; specifically, judicial power is not divided. Statement II is a correct description of India's judicial structure, which is integrated rather than divided between the Centre and states.

Question 3

As per the constitutional framework of India,
how many of the following types of powers are explicitly mentioned as being divided between the Centre and the states?
1. Legislative
2. Executive
3. Financial
4. Judicial

Accepted Answer

Only three. The Constitution of India divides powers between the Centre and the states under three categories: legislative, executive, and financial. Judicial power is not divided; instead, an integrated judicial system is in place.

Question 4

With reference to the nature of the Indian federal system, consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Constitution is fundamentally federal in structure.
2. The Centre and the states are supreme within their constitutionally demarcated fields.
3. The division of powers extends to the judiciary, with separate courts for Central and state laws.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two statements. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The text confirms the federal structure and the supremacy of the Centre and states in their respective fields. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Constitution establishes an integrated judicial system, not a divided one.

Question 5

With reference to Centre-state relations in India, consider the following statements:
1. The relations between the Centre and the states can be studied under legislative, administrative, and financial heads.
2. The Constitution provides for an integrated judicial system.
3. The division of powers between the Centre and states is designed to ensure maximum harmony and coordination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3. All three statements accurately reflect the introductory description of Centre-state relations. The relations are categorized under three heads, the judiciary is integrated, and the constitutional provisions aim for harmony and coordination.

Question 6

Under the Constitution of India, in
how many of the following extraordinary circumstances can the Parliament make laws on any matter enumerated in the State List?
1. To implement an international treaty or agreement.
2. When a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation.
3. When the legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions requesting it.
4. When the President's Rule is imposed in a state.

Accepted Answer

All four circumstances. The Constitution empowers the Parliament to legislate on a State List subject under five extraordinary situations: (1) When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect, (2) During a National Emergency, (3) When two or more states pass a resolution requesting it, (4) To implement international agreements, and (5) During President's Rule. All four circumstances listed in the question are correct.

Question 7

How many of the subjects listed below were transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976?
1. Education
2. Forests
3. Police
4. Protection of wild animals and birds

Accepted Answer

Only three. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects from the State List to the Concurrent List: (a) education, (b) forests, (c) weights and measures, (d) protection of wild animals and birds, and (e) administration of justice. 'Police' remains a subject under the State List. Therefore, three of the listed subjects were transferred.

Question 8

With reference to the power of Parliament to legislate on a matter in the State List in the national interest, consider the following statements:
1. The initiating resolution must be supported by a special majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Rajya Sabha present and voting.
2. A law made by Parliament under this provision ceases to have effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.
3. This provision completely restricts the power of a state legislature to make laws on the same matter during the period the resolution is in force.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

3 only. Statement 3 is incorrect. The text explicitly states, 'This provision does not restrict the power of a state legislature to make laws on the same matter.' However, in case of inconsistency, the parliamentary law would prevail. Statements 1 and 2 accurately describe the procedure and the duration of the law made under Article 249.

Question 9

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In case of a conflict between a Central law and a State law on a subject enumerated in the Concurrent List, the Central law prevails over the State law.
Statement II: A State law on a Concurrent List subject can prevail in that state if it was reserved for the President's consideration and received his assent, but Parliament can still override such a law by subsequently making a law on the same matter.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are correct. Statement I states the general rule of repugnancy under Article 254. Statement II describes the specific exception to this rule, where a state law can prevail if it gets Presidential assent. However, Statement II is not an explanation for Statement I; rather, it is a qualification or an exception to the general rule. The general rule of Central supremacy exists independently. Therefore, both statements are correct but one does not explain the other.

Question 10

Consider the following pairs:
Article No. : Subject Matter
1. Article 248 : Residuary powers of legislation
2. Article 249 : Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more states by consent
3. Article 250 : Power of Parliament to legislate during a Proclamation of Emergency
4. Article 253 : Legislation for giving effect to international agreements
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only three pairs. Pair 1 is correct: Article 248 deals with residuary powers. Pair 2 is incorrect: Article 249 deals with the power of Parliament to legislate on a state subject in the national interest based on a Rajya Sabha resolution. The power to legislate for two or more states by consent is under Article 252. Pair 3 is correct: Article 250 deals with Parliament's power to legislate on state subjects during a national emergency. Pair 4 is correct: Article 253 deals with legislation for implementing international agreements. Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Question 11

With reference to the distribution of executive power between the Centre and the states, consider the following statements:
1. The executive power of a state extends to subjects in the Concurrent List, even if the law is enacted by the Parliament, unless the Constitution or a parliamentary law directs otherwise.
2. The Constitution imposes an obligation on every state to exercise its executive power in a manner that does not impede the executive power of the Centre.
3. The Centre can give directions to a state regarding the provision of adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3. All three statements are correct. For the Concurrent List, executive power generally rests with the states unless specified otherwise. The Constitution places two restrictions on the states' executive power: to ensure compliance with parliamentary laws and not to impede the Centre's executive power. The Centre is also empowered to give specific directions to states on matters like mother-tongue instruction at the primary stage for linguistic minorities.

Question 12

Statement I: The Constitution of India, despite its federal structure, provides for an integrated judicial system.
Statement II: A single system of courts enforces both Central and state laws, and the President has the power to appoint, transfer, and remove judges of the state high courts.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.. Statement I is correct as India has an integrated judiciary with the Supreme Court at the apex, unlike the dual judiciary found in some federations. Statement II is also correct and explains the nature of this integration. The fact that a single judicial hierarchy enforces all laws and that the Centre (via the President) has significant powers over high court judges demonstrates the integrated nature of the system. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding the delegation of executive functions in the Indian federal system:
1. The President can entrust executive functions of the Centre to a state only with the prior consent of the state government.
2. The Parliament can, by law, confer powers on a state regarding a Union List subject, irrespective of the consent of the state concerned.
3. A state can, through an agreement with the Centre, entrust its executive functions to the Central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

None. All the statements are correct. 1) The President's delegation to a state requires the state's consent. 2) However, delegation can also happen through legislation by the Parliament on a Union List subject, which does not require the state's consent. 3) A state can also delegate its functions to the Centre, but this must be done with the consent of the Central government, typically through an agreement. Since all statements are correct, the correct answer is 'None'.

Question 14

Consider the following provisions related to Centre-State relations:
1. Establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC)
2. Creation of a new All-India Service
3. Adjudication of inter-state water disputes
4. Establishment of an Inter-State Council

In
how many of the above cases is the power vested with the Parliament of India?

Accepted Answer

Only three. The Parliament has the power in three of the four cases. 1) Parliament can establish a JSPSC on the request of state legislatures. 2) Parliament can create a new All-India Service based on a Rajya Sabha resolution. 3) Parliament can provide for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes. However, 4) the Inter-State Council is established by the President under Article 263, not by the Parliament. Therefore, only three of the provisions involve power vested with the Parliament.

Question 15

Consider the following pairs regarding constitutional provisions for Central control over states:
1. Article 352 : Centre can give executive directions to a state on any matter.
2. Article 355 : Duty of the Centre to protect states from internal disturbance.
3. Article 356 : President can assume functions of the state government.
4. Article 360 : Centre can direct states to reduce salaries of persons serving in the state.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

All four pairs. All four pairs are correctly matched. During a National Emergency (Article 352), the Centre's executive power extends to giving directions to a state on any matter. Article 355 imposes a duty on the Centre to protect states. During President's Rule (Article 356), the President can take over the state's executive functions. During a Financial Emergency (Article 360), the Centre can issue directions for financial propriety, including the reduction of salaries.

Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding the borrowing powers under the Indian Constitution:
1. The Central government can borrow from sources both within India and outside India.
2. A state government can borrow from sources both within India and outside India, upon the security of its Consolidated Fund.
3. A state cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Centre if there is an outstanding loan made to the state by the Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct as the Central government can borrow within or outside India. Statement 2 is incorrect because a state government can borrow only within India, not abroad. Statement 3 is correct as the Constitution places this restriction on the borrowing power of the states to ensure fiscal discipline and protect the Centre's financial interests.

Question 17

How many of the taxes/duties listed below were subsumed under the Goods and Services Tax (GST) as per the 101st Amendment Act?
1. Service Tax
2. Taxes on agricultural income
3. Entertainment Tax levied by local bodies
4. Taxes on lottery, betting and gambling

Accepted Answer

Only two. Service Tax (levied by the Centre) and Taxes on lottery, betting and gambling (levied by States) were subsumed under GST. Taxes on agricultural income remain an exclusive state subject and were not subsumed. The subsumed Entertainment Tax specifically excludes the tax levied by local bodies. Therefore, only two of the listed items were subsumed under GST.

Question 18

Statement I: The Finance Commission, a quasi-judicial body, is constituted by the President every fifth year to make recommendations on the distribution of tax proceeds between the Centre and states.
Statement II: The recommendations made by the Finance Commission, including those concerning grants-in-aid to the states from the Consolidated Fund of India, are binding on the Government of India.

Accepted Answer

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Statement I is correct; Article 280 provides for the Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body constituted by the President for the said purpose. Statement II is incorrect; the Constitution provides for the Finance Commission to make recommendations, but these recommendations are advisory in nature and not legally binding on the government, although they are generally accepted.

Question 19

With reference to the Centre-State financial relations, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

The proceeds from surcharges on taxes and duties referred to in Articles 269 and 270 are shared between the Centre and the states.. The proceeds of surcharges levied by the Centre on taxes and duties mentioned in Articles 269 and 270 go exclusively to the Centre. The states have no share in these surcharges. Therefore, the statement that they are shared is incorrect.

Question 20

Consider the following pairs regarding grants-in-aid from the Centre to the States:
1. Statutory Grants : Article 282
2. Discretionary Grants : Article 275
3. Grants for promoting welfare of Scheduled Tribes : Article 275
4. Grants in lieu of export duty on jute : Article 273
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is incorrect; Statutory grants are dealt with under Article 275. Pair 2 is incorrect; Discretionary grants are covered under Article 282. Pair 3 is correct; Article 275 provides for specific grants for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes. Pair 4 is correct; Article 273 provided for grants in lieu of export duty on jute and jute products. Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Centre–State Relations

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