Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding the Public Accounts Committee (PAC):
1. It consists of 22 members, with 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha.
2. A minister is eligible to be elected as a member of the committee.
3. The term of office for the members of the committee is one year.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. Ministers are not eligible for election to the Public Accounts Committee. The committee's purpose is to scrutinize government spending and hold the executive accountable, and a minister's presence would create a conflict of interest. The other two statements regarding its composition (22 members: 15 from LS, 7 from RS) and term (one year) are correct.

Question 2

Consider the following pairs:
Parliamentary Committee : Primary Function
1. Committee on Public Undertakings : Examines reports of the CAG on public undertakings.
2. Estimates Committee : Suggests alternative policies to bring about efficiency and economy in administration.
3. Committee on Subordinate Legislation : Scrutinizes the exercise of delegated legislative power by the executive.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

All three pairs. The Committee on Public Undertakings examines the reports of the CAG on public undertakings. The Estimates Committee, also known as the 'continuous economy committee', suggests alternative policies for efficiency. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation ensures the executive does not overstep the legislative powers delegated to it by Parliament. All three pairs are correctly matched.

Question 3

Statement I: The system of Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) was established in 1993 to strengthen the financial accountability of the Government to the Parliament.
Statement II: The recommendations made by the DRSCs in their reports are binding on the respective ministries.

Accepted Answer

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.. The Departmentally Related Standing Committees were indeed set up in 1993 to provide more detailed scrutiny of demands for grants, bills, and national policies. However, their recommendations are advisory in nature and not binding on the government, although they carry significant persuasive value.

Question 4

With reference to the Estimates Committee, consider the following statements:
1. It is the largest standing committee of the Parliament, comprising 30 members.
2. All the members of the committee are from the Lok Sabha only.
3. It is empowered to question the fundamental policy laid down by the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. The Estimates Committee is the largest parliamentary committee with 30 members, all of whom are elected from the Lok Sabha. A key limitation of its function is that it cannot question the fundamental policy approved by the Parliament; it can only comment on the economy and efficiency of implementing that policy. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.

Question 5

How many of the committees listed below have members from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?
1. Estimates Committee
2. Committee on Public Accounts
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
4. Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

Accepted Answer

Only three. The Committee on Public Accounts, the Committee on Public Undertakings, and the Committee on the Welfare of SCs and STs are joint committees with members from both Houses of Parliament. The Estimates Committee is a unique financial committee whose 30 members are all from the Lok Sabha.

Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding the process of creating or abolishing a State Legislative Council:
1. The Legislative Assembly of the concerned state must pass a resolution to this effect by a special majority.
2. The Parliament must then pass an Act, which is considered an amendment to the Constitution under Article 368.
3. The Act of Parliament for this purpose requires a special majority in both Houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. To create or abolish a State Legislative Council, the state's Legislative Assembly must first pass a resolution by a special majority (a majority of the total membership of the assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting). Following this, the Parliament can pass an Act to implement the change. This Act is passed by a simple majority and is explicitly not considered a constitutional amendment under Article 368.

Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding the composition of a State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad):
1. Its maximum strength is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly.
2. Its minimum strength is constitutionally fixed at 40.
3. The actual strength of a Council is determined by the Parliament.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

All three. All three statements are correct. The Constitution specifies that the maximum strength of a Legislative Council shall not exceed one-third of the strength of the state's Legislative Assembly, and its minimum strength shall not be less than 40. Within these constitutional limits, the actual strength of a Legislative Council is fixed by an Act of Parliament.

Question 8

Based on the information provided for the year 2019,
how many of the states listed below have a bicameral legislature?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Tamil Nadu
4. West Bengal

Accepted Answer

Only one. As of 2019, only Andhra Pradesh among the given options had a bicameral legislature. Although a provision was made for a Legislative Council in Madhya Pradesh by the 7th Amendment Act of 1956, it has not been created. The Legislative Councils in Tamil Nadu (2010 revival not enforced) and West Bengal (abolished in 1969) were not functional.

Question 9

With reference to the composition of a State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha), consider the following statements:
1. The maximum strength of the assembly is fixed at 500 and the minimum strength at 60.
2. For some states like Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and Goa, the minimum number of members is fixed below 60.
3. All members of the legislative assemblies in all states are directly elected by the people.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

3 only. Statement 3 is incorrect. While members of the legislative assembly are generally directly elected, the provided text mentions that in states like Sikkim and Nagaland, some members are also elected indirectly. Statements 1 and 2 are correct as they accurately describe the general rule for the strength of an assembly and its specific exceptions.

Question 10

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The idea of having a second chamber in the states was criticized in the Constituent Assembly as being unrepresentative and expensive.
Statement II: The Constitution provides a flexible mechanism for states to create or abolish the second chamber based on their willingness and financial capacity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.. Statement I is correct as the Constituent Assembly debated the merits of a second chamber, with critics pointing out it was undemocratic, caused delays, and was costly. Statement II is also correct; as a consequence of these debates, the Constitution included a provision allowing Parliament to create or abolish a legislative council upon a state's request, giving states flexibility. Statement II directly explains how the Constitution addressed the concerns raised in Statement I by making the second chamber optional for states.

Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding the qualifications for a person to be chosen as a member of the state legislature:
1. The minimum age for a person to be chosen as a member of the legislative council is 30 years.
2. A candidate must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the Governor of the state.
3. Being an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state is a qualification laid down in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct. The Constitution specifies a minimum age of 30 for the legislative council and 25 for the legislative assembly. Statement 2 is incorrect because the oath must be made before a person authorised by the Election Commission for this purpose, not the Governor. Statement 3 is incorrect because the requirement of being an elector in the concerned state is laid down by Parliament in the Representation of People Act (1951), not directly in the Constitution.

Question 12

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Governor's decision is final on the question of whether a member of the state legislature has become subject to disqualifications, such as holding an office of profit or being of unsound mind.
Statement II: The question of a member's disqualification under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law) is also decided by the Governor, acting on the opinion of the Election Commission.

Accepted Answer

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Statement I is correct. For disqualifications mentioned in the Constitution and the Representation of People Act (1951), the Governor's decision is final, though they must act according to the Election Commission's opinion. Statement II is incorrect because disqualification on the ground of defection under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Chairman (in the case of the legislative council) or the Speaker (in the case of the legislative assembly), not the Governor.

Question 13

With reference to the disqualifications for membership of a state legislature, consider the following conditions:
1. Holding an office of profit under the Union or state government.
2. Failure to lodge an account of election expenses within the prescribed time.
3. Being an undischarged insolvent.
4. Having been convicted for promoting enmity between different groups.
How many of the above are additional disqualifications prescribed by the Parliament in the Representation of People Act (1951)?

Accepted Answer

Only two. The Constitution itself specifies certain disqualifications, while Parliament has added others via the Representation of People Act (1951). 'Holding an office of profit' (1) and 'being an undischarged insolvent' (3) are disqualifications mentioned in the Constitution. 'Failure to lodge election expenses' (2) and 'conviction for promoting enmity between groups' (4) are additional disqualifications prescribed by Parliament in the RPA, 1951. Therefore, only two of the listed conditions are from the RPA.

Question 14

With reference to the disqualification of members of a state legislature, consider the following statements:
1. When a question arises if a member has become subject to a disqualification (other than defection), the final decision-making authority is the Election Commission of India.
2. In making a decision on a member's disqualification, the Governor is bound to act according to the opinion obtained from the Election Commission.
3. The decision of the Speaker of the legislative assembly regarding a member's disqualification on the ground of defection is final and cannot be questioned in any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. Statement 1 is incorrect; the final decision-making authority is the Governor. Statement 2 is correct; the Governor must obtain the opinion of the Election Commission and act accordingly. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Supreme Court ruled in 1992 that the decision of the Speaker/Chairman regarding disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is subject to judicial review.

Question 15

Consider the following conditions:
1. Detention of a person under a preventive detention law.
2. Holding an office of profit in a corporation where the government has a 20 percent share.
3. Being found guilty of the social crime of practicing Sati.
4. Voluntarily acquiring the citizenship of a foreign state.
How many of the above are grounds for disqualification for being a member of a state legislature?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Condition 1 is not a disqualification. Condition 2 is not a disqualification as the threshold for government shareholding is at least 25 percent. Condition 3 (punishment for practicing Sati) is a disqualification under laws made by Parliament. Condition 4 (voluntarily acquiring foreign citizenship) is a disqualification under the Constitution. Therefore, only two of the listed conditions are valid grounds for disqualification.

Question 16

With reference to the delimitation of constituencies for state assemblies, consider the following statements:
1. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 froze the total number of seats in each state's assembly at the 1971 level.
2. A key objective behind freezing the number of seats was to promote population control measures.
3. The 84th Amendment Act of 2001 extended the ban on readjusting the total number of seats until the year 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 indeed froze the total number of assembly seats based on the 1971 census figures until the year 2000. This was done with the objective of encouraging states to implement population limiting measures without fear of losing representation. The 84th Amendment Act of 2001 further extended this freeze on the total number of seats for another 25 years, i.e., until 2026. Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Question 17

Consider the following pairs related to constitutional amendments and their provisions regarding state assembly constituencies:
1. 84th Amendment Act, 2001 : Empowered readjustment of constituencies using 1991 census data.
2. 87th Amendment Act, 2003 : Provided for delimitation of constituencies using 2001 census data.
3. 95th Amendment Act, 2009 : Extended reservation for SCs and STs until 2020.
4. 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 : Froze the total number of assembly seats until the year 2000.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

All four pairs. All pairs are correctly matched. The 84th Amendment (2001) allowed for the rationalisation of constituencies based on the 1991 census. The 87th Amendment (2003) updated this to use the 2001 census instead. The 95th Amendment (2009) extended the reservation for SCs and STs in legislatures until 2020. The 42nd Amendment (1976) initiated the freeze on the total number of seats at the 1971 level until 2000.

Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding the composition of state legislative assemblies:
1. The Constitution ensures uniformity of representation by maintaining a consistent ratio between the population of each constituency and the seats allotted to it across the state.
2. The total number of seats in the assembly of each state is subject to readjustment after every census.
3. The reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the assembly was a permanent feature of the original Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

2 and 3 only. Statement 2 is incorrect because constitutional amendments (42nd and 84th) have frozen the total number of seats in state assemblies until 2026. Statement 3 is incorrect because the reservation for SCs and STs was originally intended for ten years and has been extended periodically by subsequent amendments; it was not a permanent feature. Statement 1 is correct as it accurately describes the constitutional principle for demarcating constituencies.

Question 19

Statement I: The Constitution provides for a readjustment in the total number of seats in a state assembly and the division of the state into territorial constituencies after every census.
Statement II: Parliament is empowered by the Constitution to determine the authority and manner for carrying out the delimitation of constituencies.

Accepted Answer

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.. Statement I is incorrect. While the original constitutional provision allowed for readjustment of seats after each census, this has been superseded by amendments. The 42nd and 84th Amendment Acts have frozen the readjustment of the total number of seats until 2026. Statement II is correct. The Constitution empowers Parliament to decide the authority (like the Delimitation Commission) and the method for carrying out the division of states into constituencies.

Question 20

As per the current constitutional provisions and subsequent amendments,
how many of the following activities are part of the process of readjustment and rationalisation of state assembly constituencies?
1. Altering the total number of seats in the assembly of each state.
2. Redrawing the boundaries of territorial constituencies within a state.
3. Using the 1971 census figures to maintain the existing total number of seats.
4. Using the 2001 census figures to demarcate the boundaries of constituencies.

Accepted Answer

Only three. Item 1 is incorrect as the total number of seats in state assemblies is frozen until 2026. Items 2, 3, and 4 are correct. The current process involves: (2) redrawing constituency boundaries (rationalisation), (3) while keeping the total number of seats fixed at the level determined by the 1971 census, and (4) using the 2001 census data for the actual redrawing of boundaries, as mandated by the 87th Amendment Act of 2003. Therefore, three of the listed activities are correct.

Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding the removal of the Speaker of a State Legislative Assembly:
1. A resolution for removal must be passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly.
2. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving a 14-day advance notice.
3. While a resolution for his removal is under consideration, the Speaker cannot preside but can vote in the first instance.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 3 is not mentioned in the provided text. The text confirms that a resolution for removal requires a majority of all then-members and a 14-day advance notice. Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct based on the source.

Question 22

With reference to the powers and duties of the Speaker of a State Legislative Assembly, consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker's decision on whether a bill is a Money Bill is final.
2. The Speaker appoints the chairmen of all committees of the assembly and supervises their functioning.
3. The Speaker can exercise a casting vote in the first instance to break a tie.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. The Speaker does not vote in the first instance but can exercise a casting vote in case of a tie. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect. The Speaker's decision on a Money Bill is final, and they appoint the chairmen of all assembly committees. Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding the presiding officers of a State Legislature:
1. The Speaker of the assembly resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker.
2. The Chairman of the council resigns by writing to the Deputy Chairman.
3. The salaries and allowances of the presiding officers are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State and are not subject to the annual vote of the legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

None. All the given statements are correct. The Speaker resigns to the Deputy Speaker, and the Chairman resigns to the Deputy Chairman. Their salaries and allowances are indeed charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State, making them non-votable. Since all statements are correct, the answer is 'None'.

Question 24

Consider the following pairs regarding the resignation of presiding officers in a State Legislature:
1. Speaker of Assembly : Resigns by writing to the Governor
2. Deputy Speaker of Assembly : Resigns by writing to the Speaker
3. Chairman of Council : Resigns by writing to the Deputy Chairman
4. Deputy Chairman of Council : Resigns by writing to the Chairman
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only three pairs. The Speaker of the Assembly resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker, not the Governor. Therefore, pair 1 is incorrectly matched. The other three pairs correctly describe the resignation procedures for the respective officers. Thus, only three pairs are correctly matched.

Question 25

Statement I: The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly possesses a special power regarding the certification of Money Bills, which is not available to the Chairman of the Legislative Council.
Statement II: The Speaker is the final interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution of India within the assembly.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are factually correct based on the powers of the Speaker. The Speaker does have the final say on Money Bills, a power the Chairman lacks. The Speaker is also the final interpreter of the Constitution within the assembly. However, the Speaker's role as an interpreter of the Constitution (Statement II) is a general power and not the specific reason for the exclusive power over Money Bills (Statement I). The power over Money Bills is a distinct, specially conferred constitutional responsibility.

Question 26

Consider the following statements regarding the sessions of a State Legislature:

Statement I: The Governor of a state is authorised to prorogue a session of the State Legislature.
Statement II: The presiding officer of a House of the State Legislature has the power of adjournment as well as adjournment sine die.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are correct. The Governor has the power to summon and prorogue the sessions of the legislature. The presiding officer (Speaker/Chairman) has the power to adjourn sittings. Prorogation terminates a session, while adjournment only suspends a sitting. The powers are distinct and exercised by different authorities, so Statement II does not explain Statement I.

Question 27

Consider the following scenarios regarding bills in a bicameral State Legislature.
How many of the bills mentioned below will NOT lapse on the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly?
1. A Bill pending in the Legislative Assembly.
2. A Bill passed by the Assembly but pending in the Legislative Council.
3. A Bill pending in the Legislative Council but not yet passed by the Legislative Assembly.
4. A Bill passed by both Houses but returned by the President for reconsideration.

Accepted Answer

Only two. On the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly, a bill pending in the council but not passed by the assembly does not lapse. Similarly, a bill passed by both houses but returned by the President for reconsideration also does not lapse. Bills pending in the assembly (originating there or transmitted to it) and bills passed by the assembly but pending in the council do lapse. Therefore, two of the bills mentioned (3 and 4) will not lapse.

Question 28

Consider the following statements regarding the duration of the Houses of a State Legislature:
1. The normal term of a legislative assembly is five years, after which it is automatically dissolved.
2. The term of the legislative assembly can be extended during a national emergency by a law of Parliament for two years at a time.
3. The legislative council is a permanent body, with one-third of its members retiring every third year.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because the term of the assembly during a national emergency can be extended by Parliament for one year at a time, not two. Statement 3 is incorrect because one-third of the members of the legislative council retire on the expiration of every second year, not third year.

Question 29

Consider the following pairs related to the proceedings of a State Legislature:
1. Adjournment : Terminates a session of the House.
2. Prorogation : Terminates a sitting for an indefinite period.
3. Dissolution : Ends the very life of an existing Legislative Assembly.
4. Quorum : Ten members or one-tenth of the total members, whichever is lesser.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only one pair. Only one pair is correctly matched. Pair 1 is incorrect: Adjournment suspends a sitting, while prorogation terminates a session. Pair 2 is incorrect: Prorogation terminates a session, while adjournment sine die terminates a sitting indefinitely. Pair 3 is correct. Pair 4 is incorrect: Quorum is ten members or one-tenth of the total members, whichever is greater.

Question 30

With reference to the functioning of a State Legislature, consider the following statements:
1. All matters at any sitting are decided by a special majority of votes of the members present and voting.
2. The presiding officer of a House does not vote in the first instance but exercises a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.
3. The maximum permissible gap between two sessions of the state legislature is one year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. Statement 1 is incorrect; most matters are decided by an ordinary majority, with only a few specific matters requiring a special majority. Statement 2 is correct; this is the standard procedure for the presiding officer's vote. Statement 3 is incorrect; the maximum gap between two sessions cannot be more than six months, meaning the legislature must meet at least twice a year.

Question 31

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Constitution of India does not provide for a mechanism of joint sitting of both Houses of a state legislature to resolve a deadlock over an ordinary bill.
Statement II: In the legislative process for ordinary bills, the Legislative Assembly has overriding powers that allow it to pass a bill a second time, making its will prevail over the Legislative Council.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.. The Constitution provides a mechanism where the Legislative Assembly can override the Legislative Council's objections or delays by passing an ordinary bill a second time. This ensures the Assembly's will prevails, thus obviating the need for a joint sitting to resolve disagreements, unlike at the Union level. Therefore, both statements are correct, and the second statement explains the first.

Question 32

With reference to the passage of an ordinary bill in a bicameral state legislature, consider the following timelines:
1. The maximum period the Legislative Council can keep a bill pending when it is transmitted from the Assembly for the first time is three months.
2. If the Assembly passes the bill again, the maximum period the Legislative Council can then delay it is one month.
3. The total maximum period the Legislative Council can delay an ordinary bill is four months.
4. If the President returns a bill for reconsideration, the state legislature must reconsider it within six months.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

All four statements. All four statements are factually correct based on the legislative procedures. The Legislative Council can delay an ordinary bill for a maximum of three months in the first instance and one month in the second instance, making the total delay four months. Separately, if a bill reserved by the Governor is returned by the President for reconsideration, the state legislature is required to do so within a six-month period.

Question 33

Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Legislative Council in a state legislature:
1. A Money Bill can be introduced in the Legislative Council, but only on the prior recommendation of the Governor.
2. The Legislative Council has the power to reject or amend a Money Bill passed by the Legislative Assembly.
3. An ordinary bill that originates in the Legislative Council and is subsequently rejected by the Legislative Assembly becomes dead.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Legislative Assembly. The Legislative Council cannot reject or amend a Money Bill; it can only make recommendations within 14 days. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. Statement 3 is correct, as a bill originating in the Council and rejected by the Assembly ends, highlighting the Assembly's superior legislative power.

Question 34

With reference to the Governor's powers regarding bills passed by the state legislature, consider the following statements:
1. The Governor can return a Money Bill for reconsideration by the state legislature.
2. If the Governor returns an ordinary bill for reconsideration and it is passed again by the legislature, the Governor must give his assent.
3. The Governor's power to return a bill for reconsideration is known as a suspensive veto.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

2 and 3 only. The Governor cannot return a Money Bill for reconsideration. For an ordinary bill, if the legislature passes it again after the Governor's return, the Governor is obligated to give assent; this power is known as a suspensive veto. Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is incorrect.

Question 35

Consider the following pairs regarding the legislative procedure in a bicameral state legislature:
1. Action: Legislative Council rejects an ordinary bill for the first time.
   Consequence: The Assembly must convene a joint sitting.
2. Action: Legislative Council does not return a Money Bill within 14 days.
   Consequence: The bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses.
3. Action: Governor reserves a bill for the President, who returns it for reconsideration.
   Consequence: The President must give assent if the bill is passed again by the state legislature.
4. Action: An ordinary bill originates in the Council and is rejected by the Assembly.
   Consequence: The bill ends and becomes dead.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is incorrect as there is no provision for a joint sitting in state legislatures. Pair 2 is correct. Pair 3 is incorrect as the Constitution does not make it obligatory for the President to give assent to a reconsidered state bill. Pair 4 is correct. Therefore, only two pairs (2 and 4) are correctly matched.

Question 36

With reference to the legislative powers of a State Legislative Council, consider the following statements:
1. A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Legislative Assembly.
2. The Council can detain or delay an ordinary bill for a maximum period of four months.
3. The Council can vote on the demands for grants presented in the budget.
4. The final power to decide if a bill is a Money Bill rests with the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only three statements. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Legislative Council can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants; this is an exclusive privilege of the Legislative Assembly. Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct descriptions of the Council's limited powers regarding financial and ordinary legislation.

Question 37

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Constitution of India accords the State Legislative Council a much weaker position than the Rajya Sabha, rendering it primarily a dilatory chamber rather than an effective revising body.
Statement II: Unlike the Rajya Sabha, which represents the states and reflects the federal character of the polity, the Legislative Council does not have a similar federal significance and is heterogeneously constituted.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are correct. Statement I accurately describes the subordinate role of the Legislative Council. Statement II provides the key constitutional reasons for this design: the Rajya Sabha's role in federal equilibrium and its homogeneous composition (representing states) necessitate greater powers, whereas the Council's lack of federal significance and heterogeneous composition justify its weaker, advisory role.

Question 38

Consider the following statements regarding the spheres where the powers and status of the Legislative Council are broadly equal to that of the Legislative Assembly:
1. Approval of ordinances issued by the governor.
2. Selection of ministers including the chief minister.
3. Removal of the council of ministers through a no-confidence motion.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

3 only. Statement 3 is not correct. The council of ministers is collectively responsible only to the Legislative Assembly. Therefore, the Legislative Council cannot remove the ministry by passing a no-confidence motion. Statements 1 and 2 represent areas where the Council has broadly equal powers to the Assembly, even though ministers are ultimately responsible to the Assembly.

Question 39

With reference to the State Legislative Council, consider the following statements:
1. Ministers, including the Chief Minister, can be members of the Legislative Council.
2. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to both the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council.
3. The composition of the Council is described as heterogeneous as it represents different interests and includes nominated members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Statement 2 is incorrect. The council of ministers is collectively responsible only to the Legislative Assembly, the popular house. Statement 1 is correct, as ministers can be members of either House. Statement 3 is also correct; the Council's composition is heterogeneous, including members elected by different electorates and others nominated by the Governor, which is a reason for its weaker position.

Question 40

Consider the following procedural aspects regarding an ordinary bill in a state legislature with a Legislative Council:
1. The Council can detain the bill for three months in the first instance.
2. If the bill is passed again by the Assembly, the Council can delay it for a further one month.
3. The final power of passing an ordinary bill ultimately lies with the Assembly.
4. A joint sitting of both Houses is convened to resolve a deadlock over an ordinary bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only three statements. Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The Legislative Council can delay an ordinary bill for a maximum of four months (three in the first instance, one in the second). Ultimately, the will of the Assembly prevails. Statement 4 is incorrect; unlike at the Union level, there is no provision for a joint sitting of the state legislature to resolve a deadlock on an ordinary bill.

Question 41

Consider the following privileges enjoyed in the context of a state legislature:
1. Freedom from arrest in civil cases during the session and for a period before and after it.
2. The right to publish its reports, debates, and proceedings.
3. Freedom of speech within the state legislature.
4. Exemption from jury service.
How many of the above are individual privileges of the members?

Accepted Answer

Only three. Individual privileges include freedom from arrest in civil cases during sessions, freedom of speech in the legislature, and exemption from jury service. The right to publish reports and proceedings is a collective privilege belonging to the House as a whole, not to members individually.

Question 42

With reference to the privileges of a state legislature, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution extends these privileges to the Advocate-General of the state.
2. The Governor, being an integral part of the state legislature, is also protected by these privileges.
3. The privilege of freedom from arrest is available to members in both civil and criminal cases.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

2 and 3 only. Statement 2 is incorrect because the privileges of the state legislature do not extend to the governor. Statement 3 is incorrect because the freedom from arrest is available only in civil cases, not in criminal cases or preventive detention cases. Statement 1 is correct as the Advocate-General is covered.

Question 43

Consider the following two statements:
Statement I: No person, whether a member or an outsider, can be arrested within the precincts of a House of the state legislature without the permission of the presiding officer.
Statement II: The courts are prohibited from inquiring into the proceedings of a House of the state legislature or its committees.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are correct and represent distinct collective privileges of the state legislature. Statement I is a specific rule to maintain order and authority within the House precincts. Statement II establishes a broader principle of separation of powers, insulating legislative proceedings from judicial review. While related to the overall authority of the House, Statement II is not the direct legal explanation for the specific procedural rule in Statement I.

Question 44

With reference to the rights of ministers and the Advocate-General in a state legislature, consider the following statements:
1. A minister who is not a member of either House can participate in the proceedings of both Houses.
2. The Advocate-General of the state has the right to speak in the proceedings of the state legislature but is not entitled to vote.
3. A minister can participate in the proceedings of a House of which he is not a member, and is also entitled to vote in that House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. Both ministers and the Advocate-General have the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House or its committees. This allows a minister who is not a member of any house to participate. However, they are not entitled to vote in a House of which they are not a member. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct, but statement 3 is incorrect because a minister cannot vote in a house where they are not a member.

Question 45

Consider the following pairs regarding the time limit after which a state legislature is authorized to decide on the continuation of English as a floor language:
1. Himachal Pradesh : 25 years
2. Goa : 25 years
3. Mizoram : 40 years
4. Meghalaya : 40 years
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. The time limit for Himachal Pradesh and Meghalaya is 25 years. The time limit for Goa and Mizoram is 40 years. Therefore, Pair 1 (Himachal Pradesh: 25 years) and Pair 3 (Mizoram: 40 years) are correctly matched. Pair 2 is incorrect as Goa's limit is 40 years. Pair 4 is incorrect as Meghalaya's limit is 25 years. Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Question 46

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Constitution of India provides for a mechanism of a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament to resolve a deadlock over an ordinary bill.
Statement II: In the case of a state legislature with two Houses, the will of the legislative assembly ultimately prevails over the legislative council in resolving a deadlock over an ordinary bill, as there is no constitutional provision for a joint sitting.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are factually correct. Statement I accurately describes the deadlock resolution mechanism for the Parliament. Statement II correctly describes the situation in state legislatures, where the absence of a joint sitting provision means the legislative assembly's position prevails. However, Statement II describes the procedure at the state level and does not explain the procedure at the Union level mentioned in Statement I. They are two independent, albeit related, constitutional facts.

Question 47

With reference to the structure of State Legislatures in India, consider the following states:
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Gujarat
3. Karnataka
4. West Bengal
5. Uttar Pradesh
How many of the states listed above have a bicameral legislature (i.e., a Legislative Council)?

Accepted Answer

Only three. A state with a bicameral legislature has both a Legislative Assembly and a Legislative Council. Based on the provided data, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Uttar Pradesh have Legislative Councils. Gujarat and West Bengal have unicameral legislatures (only a Legislative Assembly). Therefore, three of the listed states have a bicameral legislature.

Question 48

Consider the following statements regarding a Money Bill in a State Legislature:
1. A Money Bill can be introduced in either the legislative assembly or the legislative council.
2. It can be introduced only on the recommendation of the Governor.
3. The legislative council has the power to reject or amend a Money Bill.
4. The legislative council must return the bill to the legislative assembly, with or without recommendations, within 14 days.
Which of the statements given above are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect because a Money Bill can only be introduced in the legislative assembly, not the legislative council. Statement 3 is incorrect because the legislative council cannot reject or amend a Money Bill; it can only make recommendations. Statements 2 and 4 are correct procedures for a Money Bill in the state legislature. The question asks for the incorrect statements.

Question 49

Consider the following pairs:
1. Article 169 : Composition of the Legislative Assemblies
2. Article 171 : Composition of the Legislative Councils
3. Article 174 : Abolition or creation of Legislative Councils
4. Article 178 : Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Legislative Assembly
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Let's examine the pairs: Pair 1 is incorrect; Article 169 deals with the abolition or creation of Legislative Councils, while Article 170 deals with the composition of Legislative Assemblies. Pair 2 is correct; Article 171 outlines the composition of Legislative Councils. Pair 3 is incorrect; Article 174 pertains to sessions, prorogation, and dissolution of the State Legislature. Pair 4 is correct; Article 178 deals with the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly. Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Question 50

With reference to the legislative procedure for an ordinary bill in a bicameral State Legislature, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India provides for a joint sitting of the legislative assembly and the legislative council to resolve a deadlock.
2. An ordinary bill is deemed passed by the state legislature if the legislative assembly agrees to the amendments suggested by the legislative council.
3. In the event of a persistent disagreement between the two Houses, the decision of the legislative assembly ultimately prevails.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect; unlike the Parliament, the Constitution does not provide for a joint sitting of the two Houses of a state legislature to resolve a deadlock. Statement 2 is correct; if the assembly accepts the council's amendments, the bill is passed by both houses. Statement 3 is also correct; because there is no joint sitting mechanism, the legislative council can at best delay a bill, but the will of the legislative assembly ultimately prevails in case of a disagreement over an ordinary bill.

Question 51

Consider the following scenarios regarding the disqualification of a Member of a State Legislature and the authority responsible for the decision. How many of the pairs below are correctly matched?

1. Disqualification for holding an office of profit under the state government: Governor's decision, based on the Election Commission's opinion.
2. Disqualification for voluntarily giving up party membership after being elected: Speaker's decision, subject to judicial review.
3. Disqualification for being convicted of an offence resulting in imprisonment for three years: Speaker's decision, as it affects party strength.
4. Disqualification of a nominated member for joining a political party seven months after taking their seat: Governor's decision, as it is a constitutional violation.

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is correct: As per the static content, on questions of disqualification (like holding an office of profit), the Governor's decision is final, but they must act according to the opinion of the Election Commission. Pair 2 is correct: As per the Tenth Schedule and the current affairs storyline, disqualification on the ground of defection is decided by the Speaker/Chairman, and this decision is subject to judicial review (*Kihoto Hollohan* case). Pair 3 is incorrect: Disqualification due to criminal conviction (imprisonment for two or more years) falls under the Representation of People Act (1951), and the deciding authority is the Governor, not the Speaker. Pair 4 is incorrect: A nominated member joining a party after six months is a ground for disqualification under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law). Therefore, the decision is made by the Speaker, not the Governor. Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Question 52

The Assam government recently used an ordinance to repeal the Assam Muslim Marriage and Divorce Registration Act, 1935. If a similar bill, let's call it the 'State Personal Law Repeal Bill', is passed by the Legislative Assembly in a state with a bicameral legislature, which of the following statements regarding the powers of the Legislative Council is NOT correct?

1. The Council can discuss the bill and suggest amendments.
2. If the Council rejects the bill, the Legislative Assembly must pass it again for it to be presented to the Governor.
3. The Council can ultimately delay the bill's passage by a maximum period of four months.
4. If the Council proposes amendments that the Assembly rejects, a joint sitting of both Houses must be convened to resolve the deadlock.

Accepted Answer

Only 4. Statement 4 is incorrect. Unlike the Parliament, there is no provision for a joint sitting of the state legislature's two Houses to resolve a deadlock over an ordinary bill. In case of disagreement, the will of the Legislative Assembly ultimately prevails. The Council can only delay the bill for a maximum of four months (three months in the first instance and one month in the second). Statements 1, 2, and 3 accurately describe the limited, dilatory powers of the Legislative Council.

Question 53

Inspired by the recent passage of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, a state with a bicameral legislature introduces a similar ordinary bill to reform its own criminal statutes. A disagreement arises between the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council over its provisions.

Consider the following potential outcomes:
1. The Legislative Council can reject the bill, which would require the Governor to summon a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve the deadlock.
2. The Legislative Council can detain the bill for a maximum period of four months, after which the bill is deemed to have been passed.
3. If the bill originated in the Council and is rejected by the Assembly, the bill ends and becomes dead.
4. The Council can propose amendments, but the Assembly has the final power to accept or reject them, ultimately ensuring its will prevails.

How many of the statements above are correct regarding the powers of the Legislative Council in this scenario?

Accepted Answer

Only three. Statement 1 is incorrect as there is no provision for a joint sitting of the state legislature to resolve a deadlock over an ordinary bill. Statement 2 is correct; the Council can delay an ordinary bill for three months in the first instance and one month in the second, totaling four months. Statement 3 is correct; if a bill originates in the Council and is rejected by the Assembly, it lapses. Statement 4 is correct; the Assembly has the final say on an ordinary bill, making the Council's role primarily advisory or dilatory. Therefore, three statements are correct.

Question 54

Considering the findings of the 'Annual Review of State Laws 2024' which highlighted that over 51% of bills in state assemblies were passed on the same day they were introduced, evaluate the following statements regarding the legislative process in a bicameral state like Maharashtra:

1. An ordinary bill, such as the one granting Maratha reservation, can be introduced in either the Legislative Assembly or the Legislative Council.
2. If a deadlock occurs on an ordinary bill between the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council, the Constitution provides for a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve it.
3. The trend of passing bills on the day of introduction effectively bypasses the standard three-reading process designed for legislative scrutiny.
4. In the case of a Money Bill, the Maharashtra Legislative Council can reject it if it is not returned to the Assembly within 14 days.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct; an ordinary bill can be introduced in either House of the state legislature. Statement 3 is also correct; rushing a bill through on the same day circumvents the detailed scrutiny intended by the three-reading process. Statement 2 is incorrect; unlike the Parliament, there is no provision for a joint sitting in state legislatures to resolve a deadlock. The will of the Legislative Assembly ultimately prevails. Statement 4 is incorrect; the Legislative Council cannot reject a Money Bill. It must return it within 14 days, and if it fails to do so, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses. Therefore, only two statements are correct.

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