Subordinate Courts

Q1.Consider the following statements regarding the District and Sessions Judge in India: 1. The District Judge is the highest judicial authority in a district, possessing only appellate jurisdiction in civil and criminal matters. 2. When dealing with criminal cases, the District Judge is known as the Sessions Judge. 3. A capital punishment passed by a Sessions Judge is final and not subject to confirmation by any higher court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q2.Consider the following pairs: 1. Article 233 : Appointment of district judges 2. Article 234 : Control over subordinate courts 3. Article 235 : Interpretation of judicial terms 4. Article 237 : Application of provisions to certain classes of Magistrates How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q3.Given below are two statements: Statement I: A Sessions Judge in a district has the power to impose a sentence of capital punishment. Statement II: Any death sentence passed by a Sessions Judge requires confirmation by the High Court before it can be executed, irrespective of whether an appeal has been made. In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct?

Q4.With reference to the jurisdiction of subordinate courts, consider the following statements: 1. The Court of a Subordinate Judge exercises unlimited pecuniary jurisdiction over civil suits. 2. The Chief Judicial Magistrate is empowered to decide criminal cases punishable with imprisonment for a term up to ten years. 3. The Court of Munsiff tries criminal cases punishable with imprisonment for a term up to three years. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q5.Consider the following statements regarding the subordinate judiciary in India: 1. The organisational structure and nomenclature of subordinate courts are uniform across all states. 2. Decisions of Small Causes Courts are final and cannot be revised by the High Court. 3. Nyaya Panchayats are a type of Panchayat Court that try petty civil and criminal cases. 4. The constitutional provisions regulating subordinate courts are located in Part VI of the Constitution. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q6.Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of persons to the judicial service of a state, other than district judges: 1. The appointment is made by the Governor of the state. 2. The appointment requires consultation with both the State Public Service Commission and the concerned High Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q7.Statement I: The control over district courts and other subordinate courts, including matters of posting, promotion and leave, is vested in the High Court. Statement II: The Governor may direct that provisions relating to persons in the state judicial service apply to any class or classes of magistrates in the state.

Q8.With reference to the subordinate judiciary in a state, which of the following statements is/are NOT correct? 1. The Governor has the authority to control the posting, promotion, and leave of persons belonging to the judicial service of a state. 2. The State Public Service Commission is consulted in the appointment of persons (other than district judges) to the judicial service. 3. The High Court's control extends to all posts inferior to the post of district judge within the state's judicial service.

Q9.As per the constitutional interpretation, consider the following posts: 1. Assistant sessions judge 2. Chief judge of a small cause court 3. Joint district judge 4. Chief presidency magistrate How many of the above are included within the expression 'district judge'?

Q10.With reference to the term 'judicial service' of a state, consider the following statements: 1. It is a service consisting exclusively of persons intended to fill the post of district judge. 2. It includes civil judicial posts inferior to the post of district judge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q11.Consider the following statements regarding the referral of cases to a Lok Adalat: 1. A case pending before a court can be referred to a Lok Adalat only if all parties to the dispute agree to the settlement. 2. A pre-litigation dispute can be referred to a Lok Adalat only upon receipt of an application from all the parties to the dispute. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q12.With reference to the composition of a Lok Adalat, consider the following statements: 1. A Lok Adalat is generally chaired by a serving or retired judicial officer. 2. Apart from the chairman, a Lok Adalat typically includes a lawyer and a social worker as members. 3. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, mandates that every Lok Adalat must consist of a fixed number of members. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q13.Consider the following as potential benefits of settling a dispute at a Lok Adalat: 1. Any court fee already paid is refunded upon settlement. 2. Procedural laws like the Civil Procedure Code and the Evidence Act are strictly applied to ensure fairness. 3. The award is binding on the parties and has the status of a civil court decree. 4. An appeal against the award can be filed in the High Court if a party is dissatisfied. How many of the above are correct benefits of the Lok Adalat system?

Q14.Statement I: An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a Civil Court and is final and binding on all parties to the dispute. Statement II: The institution of Lok Adalat has been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.

Q15.With reference to the jurisdiction of Lok Adalats, consider the following types of cases: 1. Labour disputes 2. Criminal offences that are non-compoundable 3. Bank Recovery cases 4. Matrimonial disputes How many of the types of cases listed above can be taken up for settlement by a Lok Adalat?

Q16.With reference to the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, how many of the persons listed below are eligible for getting free legal services? 1. Industrial workmen 2. All persons with an annual income not exceeding ₹1,25,000 3. Victims of trafficking in human beings 4. Disabled persons

Q17.Consider the following statements regarding the structure established under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987: 1. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is the primary body for directly providing free legal services to people across the country. 2. A High Court Legal Services Committee is constituted in every High Court. 3. The Supreme Court Legal Services Committee is responsible for implementing legal services programmes for the entire country.

Q18.Consider the following statements about the functions of various legal services authorities in India. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct? 1. Organising Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes is a primary function of State and District level authorities. 2. Laying down policies and principles for legal services is a key function of the State Legal Services Authorities. 3. Organising legal awareness camps in rural areas is a mandated function for authorities like SLSAs and DLSAs.

Q19.Statement I: The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, was enacted to establish a nationwide uniform network for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society. Statement II: Article 39A of the Constitution of India, a Directive Principle of State Policy, provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society to ensure justice for all.

Q20.Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, how many of the following are included in the definition of 'free legal services'? 1. Payment of court fees and process fees 2. Providing the service of lawyers in legal proceedings 3. Obtaining certified copies of orders and other documents 4. Preparation of appeal and paper book, including printing

Q21.Consider the following statements regarding the procedural aspects and appeals related to Gram Nyayalayas: 1. An appeal in a criminal case from a Gram Nyayalaya lies to the High Court. 2. An appeal in a civil case from a Gram Nyayalaya lies to the District Court. 3. Both civil and criminal appeals must be heard and disposed of within a period of six months from the date of filing. 4. The Gram Nyayalaya is strictly bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q22.With reference to the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008, consider the following statements: 1. The Nyayadhikari, who presides over a Gram Nyayalaya, is appointed by the State Government in consultation with the respective High Court. 2. A Gram Nyayalaya is established for every Panchayat at the village level to ensure justice at the lowest tier. 3. The Nyayadhikari possesses the same powers and salary as a First Class Magistrate working under the High Court. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q23.Consider the following statements regarding the powers and functions under the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008: 1. The Gram Nyayalaya is designed as a mobile court and exercises the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts. 2. The power to amend the First and Second Schedules of the Act, which specify the cases to be tried, rests exclusively with the Central Government. 3. The establishment of Gram Nyayalayas was based on the recommendations of the Law Commission of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q24.Statement I: The Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 was enacted to provide access to justice to citizens at their doorsteps, reflecting the principles of Article 39A of the Constitution. Statement II: A key feature of the Gram Nyayalaya is its mandate to try to settle disputes as far as possible by bringing about conciliation between the parties.

Q25.Consider the following pairs with respect to the institutional design of a Gram Nyayalaya: 1. Presiding Officer : Nyayadhikari 2. Status of Court : Court of Session 3. Guiding Principle : Indian Evidence Act, 1872 4. Primary Objective : Conciliation between parties How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q26.With reference to the Family Courts Act, 1984, consider the following as its objectives: 1. To promote conciliation 2. To secure speedy settlement of disputes 3. To adjudicate on all civil disputes within a family 4. To handle disputes relating to marriage and family affairs How many of the above objectives are explicitly mentioned as the purpose for establishing Family Courts?

Q27.Consider the following statements regarding the Family Courts in India: 1. The legal framework for the establishment of Family Courts was provided by an Act passed in 1984. 2. The primary focus of these courts is punitive action rather than conciliation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q28.Consider the following statements: Statement I: The institutional design of Family Courts is oriented towards promoting conciliation as a primary method of dispute resolution. Statement II: The Family Courts Act, 1984, was enacted to provide a mechanism for the speedy settlement of disputes concerning marriage and family affairs. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q29.Consider the following statements about the Family Courts Act, 1984: 1. It provides for the establishment of Family Courts. 2. It aims to secure speedy settlement of disputes. 3. Its jurisdiction is confined exclusively to disputes relating to marriage. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q30.With reference to the Family Courts Act, 1984, consider the following purposes: 1. Promotion of adversarial litigation 2. Securing speedy settlement of disputes 3. Establishment of Family Courts 4. Resolution of disputes relating to corporate affairs How many of the above are correctly stated purposes of the Act?

Q31.Consider the following statements comparing the subordinate judiciary with quasi-judicial bodies: 1. Subordinate courts' organizational structure is determined by states within the constitutional framework of Articles 233-237, whereas quasi-judicial bodies are typically established by specific central or state statutes. 2. A capital punishment sentence by a Sessions Judge is subject to High Court confirmation only if an appeal is filed, similar to how decisions of quasi-judicial bodies can be challenged in higher courts. 3. Both the Court of a District Judge and a quasi-judicial body like the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) possess the powers of a civil court, such as summoning individuals. 4. The subordinate judiciary is headed by judicial officers forming a distinct hierarchy, while quasi-judicial bodies are often headed by experts from specific fields and do not form part of the integrated judicial system. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q32.Considering the statutory framework of Lok Adalats and the recent Supreme Court judgment on arbitration agreements, how many of the following statements are correct? 1. An award from a Lok Adalat is deemed a decree of a Civil Court and is final and non-appealable. 2. An arbitral award under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, is generally binding and has very limited grounds for appeal, making it largely final. 3. The recent Supreme Court ruling that unstamped arbitration agreements are valid reinforces the principle of procedural autonomy for ADR mechanisms, a value also reflected in the Lok Adalat's exemption from strict adherence to the Civil Procedure Code. 4. While a Lok Adalat can take cognizance of a matter if even one party makes an application to the court, arbitration can only be initiated if a valid, pre-existing arbitration agreement exists between the parties.

Q33.With reference to the recent 3rd National Lok Adalat of 2024, which successfully settled over 1.14 crore cases, consider the following statements regarding the legal framework and procedure of Lok Adalats in India: 1. The award passed by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a Civil Court. 2. An appeal against the award can be filed in the High Court if it involves a substantial question of law. 3. Lok Adalats are mandated to strictly follow the procedural laws like the Civil Procedure Code and the Evidence Act to ensure fairness. 4. If a pending court case is settled at a Lok Adalat, the court fees originally paid by the litigants are refunded. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q34.With reference to the legal services framework in India, consider the following statements in light of the recent appointment to the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee (SCLSC): 1. The SCLSC is constituted by the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) under Section 3A of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. 2. The Chairman of the SCLSC, who must be a sitting Supreme Court judge, is nominated by the President of India on the binding advice of the Chief Justice of India. 3. The Patron-in-Chief of NALSA is the Union Minister for Law and Justice, while the Patron-in-Chief of a State Legal Services Authority (SLSA) is the Governor of the respective state. 4. The SCLSC is composed of a chairperson and nine other members, all of whom are nominated by the Chief Justice of India. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q35.Consider the following statements regarding the resolution of marital disputes in India, in light of the Family Courts Act, 1984, and the recent Supreme Court advisory: 1. The fundamental objective of the Family Courts Act, 1984, is to prioritize punitive measures over reconciliation in family disputes. 2. The Supreme Court's recent advisory suggests that police intervention should be the primary and immediate step in all cases of marital discord. 3. The spirit of the Family Courts Act, 1984, and the Supreme Court's advisory both converge on the principle of promoting conciliation before resorting to adversarial or criminal proceedings. 4. The Supreme Court has recommended that Parliament review sections of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which are analogous to Section 498A of the IPC, due to concerns about their misuse. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q36.Consider the following statements regarding the jurisdiction of courts in maintenance claims by divorced Muslim women, in light of the Family Courts Act, 1984 and the Mohd Abdul Samad v. State of Telangana (2024) case: 1. The Family Courts Act, 1984, was enacted to consolidate jurisdiction over family disputes, including maintenance, to ensure speedy settlement. 2. In the Mohd Abdul Samad (2024) case, a key argument was that Family Courts lack jurisdiction because the Muslim Women Act, 1986, specifically empowers First Class Magistrates for maintenance matters. 3. The Supreme Court's 2024 ruling clarified that the Muslim Women Act, 1986, provides an exclusive remedy, thereby ousting the jurisdiction of Family Courts and the applicability of Section 125 CrPC. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q37.Considering the information from the National Conference on Legal Aid in November 2025, which of the following individuals would be eligible for free legal services under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987? 1. An industrial workman involved in a labor dispute. 2. A victim of human trafficking, regardless of their annual income. 3. A person with an annual income of ₹4,50,000 seeking to file a case in the Supreme Court. 4. A person with an annual income of ₹2,00,000 seeking legal aid for a case in a District Court. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q38.Considering the judicial hierarchy for criminal cases and the recent report on death penalties in India, evaluate the following statements: 1. A Sessions Judge is the highest judicial authority in a district with the power to impose a death sentence. 2. Any capital punishment awarded by a Sessions Judge must be confirmed by the High Court, irrespective of whether the convict files an appeal. 3. The recent data suggests a high rate of confirmation of death sentences by High Courts, aligning with the large number of such sentences passed by Sessions Courts. 4. A Chief Judicial Magistrate can impose life imprisonment but not a death sentence. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q39.In the context of the structure of the subordinate judiciary and the ongoing debate on capital punishment, which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Q40.Match the judicial authority or constitutional provision in List I with its correct role or recent observation related to capital punishment in List II. List I (Authority/Provision) 1. Sessions Judge 2. High Court 3. Supreme Court 4. Article 233 List II (Role/Observation) A. Its recent judgments (e.g., Manoj Vs State of MP) mandating psychological evaluations are often not complied with by trial courts. B. Serves as the court of first instance for awarding a death sentence, with 128 such sentences handed down in 2025. C. Provides for the appointment of the judicial officers who preside over the courts mentioned in List II-B. D. Has the constitutional duty to confirm death sentences, but recent data shows it confirmed only 8.31% of cases placed before it.

Q41.Considering the structure of the subordinate judiciary and the recent findings on death penalty sentencing, evaluate the following statements: 1. A Sessions Judge is empowered to award a death sentence, which is then automatically subject to confirmation by the Supreme Court as per the Constitution. 2. The recent report by the Square Circle Clinic highlights that Sessions Courts frequently impose death sentences without adhering to procedural safeguards, such as mitigation hearings, mandated by the Supreme Court in the *Manoj Vs State of Madhya Pradesh (2022)* judgment. 3. Article 233 of the Constitution, which deals with the appointment of district judges, is the primary provision ensuring that capital punishment sentences are reviewed for procedural fairness by the High Court. 4. The report's finding that High Courts confirmed only 8.31% of death sentences underscores a significant procedural and judicial disconnect with the trial courts. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q42.Match the judicial authority (List I) with its correct power or a recent observation related to capital punishment (List II), based on the provided texts. List I (Judicial Authority) 1. Sessions Judge 2. High Court 3. Chief Judicial Magistrate 4. Supreme Court List II (Power / Recent Observation) A. Has not confirmed any death sentences in the last three years, according to a 2026 report. B. Decides criminal cases punishable with imprisonment for a term up to seven years. C. Possesses the power to impose a death sentence, but it is subject to confirmation. D. Confirmed only 8.31% of death sentences referred to it in 2025, indicating a high rate of reversal or commutation.

Q43.In the context of the Indian judicial hierarchy and the concerns raised by the 2026 report on the death penalty, which of the following statements is NOT correct?