Q1.Consider the following statements regarding the administration of Scheduled and Tribal Areas in the Indian Constitution:
1. Article 244, which provides for a special system of administration for these areas, is located in Part X of the Constitution.
2. The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
3. The Sixth Schedule applies to the administration and control of scheduled areas in all states of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as Article 244 is in Part X. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Fifth Schedule applies to states OTHER THAN Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Sixth Schedule applies specifically to the tribal areas in those four northeastern states, not to scheduled areas in all states.
Textbookmedium
Q2.With reference to the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, consider the following states:
1. Assam
2. Manipur
3. Meghalaya
4. Mizoram
5. Tripura
How many of the states listed above have tribal areas administered under the Sixth Schedule?
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of the tribal areas in four specific northeastern states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Manipur is not included in this list. Therefore, four of the listed states are correct.
Textbookhard
Q3.Consider the following pairs:
1. Fifth Schedule : Administration of tribal areas in Assam
2. Sixth Schedule : Administration of scheduled areas in all states except four
3. Article 244 : Special system of administration for scheduled and tribal areas
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation: Pair 1 is incorrect; the Fifth Schedule excludes Assam. Pair 2 is incorrect; the Sixth Schedule applies to tribal areas in four specific states, not scheduled areas in the rest of India. Pair 3 is correct; Article 244 envisages a special system of administration for both scheduled and tribal areas. Thus, only one pair is correctly matched.
Textbookmedium
Q4.Statement I: The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution pertains to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Statement II: The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution pertains to the administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Explanation: Both statements are factually correct descriptions of the Fifth and Sixth Schedules, respectively. However, Statement II, which describes the Sixth Schedule, does not explain Statement I, which describes the Fifth Schedule. They are two distinct, parallel provisions for different sets of states.
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Textbookmedium
Q5.With reference to the constitutional provisions for Scheduled and Tribal Areas, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution envisages a special, rather than uniform, system of administration for areas designated as scheduled and tribal.
2. The administration of tribal areas in the state of Mizoram is governed by the provisions of the Fifth Schedule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as Article 244 explicitly provides for a 'special system of administration'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the administration of tribal areas in Mizoram, along with Assam, Meghalaya, and Tripura, is dealt with under the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth Schedule.
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Textbookmedium
Q6.Consider the following statements regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas:
1. The President can declare an area to be a scheduled area or alter its boundaries without consulting any state authority.
2. The executive power of the Centre extends to giving directions to the states regarding the administration of such areas.
3. The Governor of a state with scheduled areas must submit a report to the President regarding their administration annually or when required.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; the President is empowered to make such declarations or alterations in consultation with the governor of the state concerned. Statement 2 is correct as the Centre's executive power includes giving directions to states on this matter. Statement 3 is correct as the Governor is required to submit a report to the President annually or whenever so required.
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Textbookmedium
Q7.Consider the following statements regarding the Tribes Advisory Council (TAC) in a state having scheduled areas:
1. It must consist of exactly 20 members.
2. Three-fourths of its members must be the representatives of the scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly.
3. A similar council can be established in a state without scheduled areas only by an act of the state legislature.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct, specifying the composition of the Tribes Advisory Council. Statement 3 is incorrect because such a council in a state without scheduled areas can be established if the President directs, not by an act of the state legislature. Therefore, only two statements are correct.
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Textbookhard
Q8.With reference to the administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule,
which of the following statements is/are NOT correct?
1. The whole of the normal administrative machinery of a state is extended to the scheduled areas.
2. The Governor has a special responsibility regarding the administration of scheduled areas within the state.
3. A Tribes Advisory Council must be established in every state that has Scheduled Tribes.
Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct because the normal administrative machinery is specifically not fully extended to Scheduled Areas. Statement 3 is not correct because a Tribes Advisory Council is mandatory only for states having Scheduled Areas, not for all states having Scheduled Tribes. Statement 2 is correct. The question asks for the incorrect statements.
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Textbookmedium
Q9.Statement I: The President of India is empowered to declare an area as a scheduled area and can also alter its boundaries after its designation.
Statement II: Any such declaration or alteration of a scheduled area by the President requires consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
Explanation: The President holds the power to declare and alter Scheduled Areas as stated in Statement I. The constitutional procedure for exercising this power, as mentioned in the Fifth Schedule, mandates consultation with the state's Governor. Therefore, Statement II correctly explains the procedural requirement for the power described in Statement I.
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Textbookhard
Q10.Consider the following pairs related to the administration of Scheduled Areas:
1. Power to declare a Scheduled Area : Governor of the State
2. Submission of annual report on administration : President of India
3. Direction on administration of Scheduled Areas : Central Government
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation: Pair 1 is incorrect; the President has the power to declare a Scheduled Area. Pair 2 is incorrect; the Governor submits the report to the President. Pair 3 is correct; the Central Government's executive power extends to giving directions to states on this matter. Thus, only one pair is correctly matched.
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Textbookhard
Q11.Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Governor of a state is empowered to make regulations that can repeal or amend any Act of Parliament as it applies to a scheduled area within that state.
Statement II: All regulations made by the Governor for the peace and good government of a scheduled area require the assent of the President to become effective.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement I is correct as the Governor has the power to make regulations that may repeal or amend an Act of Parliament applicable to a scheduled area. Statement II is also correct because the exercise of this significant power is subject to a crucial check: all such regulations must receive the President's assent. Therefore, the President's assent is the constitutional safeguard that validates the Governor's extensive legislative power in this context, making Statement II the correct explanation for Statement I.
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Textbookmedium
Q12.Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework for Scheduled Areas:
1. The Governor must consult the Tribes Advisory Council before making any regulations for the peace and good government of a scheduled area.
2. A regulation made by the Governor for a scheduled area automatically comes into force upon its publication in the official gazette.
3. The President is required to appoint a commission on the administration of scheduled areas compulsorily after ten years from the Constitution's commencement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; consultation with the Tribes Advisory Council is a prerequisite for the Governor to make regulations. Statement 2 is incorrect; all such regulations require the assent of the President to become effective, it is not an automatic process. Statement 3 is correct; the Constitution mandates the President to appoint such a commission after ten years of its commencement, as was done in 1960.
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Textbookmedium
Q13.Consider the following pairs:
1. Article 244A : Control of the Union over the administration of Scheduled Areas
2. U.N. Dhebar Commission : Appointed in 2002
3. Dilip Singh Bhuria Commission : Submitted its report in 2004
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation: Pair 1 is incorrect: Article 244A deals with the formation of an autonomous state in Assam, while Article 339 deals with the Union's control over Scheduled Areas. Pair 2 is incorrect: The U.N. Dhebar Commission was appointed in 1960. Pair 3 is correct: The second commission, chaired by Dilip Singh Bhuria, was appointed in 2002 and submitted its report in 2004. Therefore, only one pair is correctly matched.
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Textbookhard
Q14.With respect to the administration of Scheduled Areas,
how many of the following powers or duties are vested in the Governor of a State?
1. To give assent to regulations made for a scheduled area.
2. To appoint a commission to report on the administration of scheduled areas.
3. To direct that an act of Parliament shall apply with specified modifications.
4. To regulate the business of money-lending in relation to the scheduled tribes through regulations.
Explanation: Let's evaluate the statements: 1 is incorrect; the President gives assent to these regulations, not the Governor. 2 is incorrect; the President appoints the commission. 3 is correct; the Governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament applies with modifications. 4 is correct; the Governor can make regulations for regulating money-lending concerning scheduled tribes. Therefore, only two of the listed powers are vested in the Governor.
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Textbookmedium
Q15.With reference to the Governor's power to make regulations for a scheduled area, consider the following statements:
1. Such regulations can prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the scheduled tribes.
2. Such regulations can regulate the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes.
3. The Governor is required to make such regulations for every scheduled area within five years of its notification.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct as they describe specific subjects on which the Governor can make regulations for the peace and good government of a scheduled area. Statement 3 is incorrect; there is no constitutional or statutory timeline mentioned that compels the Governor to make such regulations within a specific period like five years. The power is discretionary, to be used as needed for the peace and good government of the area. The question asks for the incorrect statement.
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Textbookmedium
Q16.Consider the following statements regarding the District Councils under the Sixth Schedule:
1. Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 30 members, all of whom are elected on the basis of adult franchise.
2. The elected members of the district council hold office for a term of five years, while nominated members hold office during the pleasure of the governor.
3. The governor can divide an autonomous district into several autonomous regions if there are different tribes residing within it.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because a district council consists of 30 members, of whom 26 are elected and 4 are nominated by the governor. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the provisions of the Sixth Schedule.
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Textbookhard
Q17.Statement I: The district and regional councils in Sixth Schedule areas can make laws on matters like land, forests, and social customs, but these laws require the assent of the governor.
Statement II: The autonomous districts constituted under the Sixth Schedule fall completely outside the executive authority of the concerned state.
Explanation: Statement I is correct; laws made by the councils on specified subjects require the governor's assent. Statement II is incorrect; the Constitution explicitly states that the autonomous districts do not fall outside the executive authority of the state concerned.
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Textbookmedium
Q18.Consider the following pairs:
1. The Karbi Anglong District : Assam
2. The Garo Hills District : Mizoram
3. The Chakma District : Tripura
4. Jaintia Hills District : Meghalaya
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation: Pair 1 (The Karbi Anglong District: Assam) and Pair 4 (Jaintia Hills District: Meghalaya) are correctly matched. Pair 2 is incorrect; The Garo Hills District is in Meghalaya. Pair 3 is incorrect; The Chakma District is in Mizoram. Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.
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Textbookmedium
Q19.With reference to the administration of tribal areas under the Sixth Schedule, consider the following statements:
1. Regulations made by a district council for the control of money lending by non-tribals require the assent of the governor.
2. Acts of Parliament automatically apply to autonomous districts without any modifications.
3. The governor can dissolve a district council based on the recommendation of a commission appointed to examine its administration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as such regulations require the governor's assent. Statement 2 is incorrect because acts of Parliament or the state legislature do not apply to autonomous districts or apply only with specified modifications and exceptions. Statement 3 is correct; the governor may dissolve a council on the recommendation of an appointed commission.
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Textbookhard
Q20.Under the Sixth Schedule, the district and regional councils are empowered to perform
which of the following functions?
1. Establishing and managing primary schools and dispensaries.
2. Constituting village courts for the trial of suits and cases between tribes.
3. Assessing and collecting land revenue.
4. Hearing appeals from the High Court on specified matters.
How many of the above functions are correct?
Explanation: The district and regional councils can establish primary schools, constitute village courts, and assess/collect land revenue. Therefore, functions 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Function 4 is incorrect; the councils hear appeals from the village courts they constitute, not from the High Court. The jurisdiction of the High Court over these areas is specified by the governor.
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Textbookhard
Q21.Consider the following pairs:
Act : Key Provision
1. Sixth Schedule... (Amendment) Act, 2003 : Creation of the Bodoland Territorial Council.
2. Fifth Schedule... (Amendment) Act, 1976 : Renaming of the Lushai Hills District as the Mizo District.
3. Sixth Schedule... (Amendment) Act, 1995 : Granting of legislative powers to the North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council.
4. Lushai Hills District (Change of Name) Act, 1954 : Empowering the President to increase the area of any Scheduled Area.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation: Pair 1 is correct as the 2003 amendment created the Bodoland Territorial Council. Pair 3 is correct as the 1995 amendment granted legislative powers to councils like the North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council. Pair 2 is incorrect; the 1976 Act empowered the President to increase Scheduled Areas, while the renaming of Lushai Hills was done by the 1954 Act. Pair 4 is incorrect for the same reason.
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Textbookhard
Q22.With reference to the power of direction regarding the application of Acts of Parliament or state legislature to tribal areas, consider the following statements:
1. In the case of Assam, the power of direction lies with the President for Acts of Parliament and with the Governor for acts of the state legislature.
2. In the case of Meghalaya and Tripura, the power of direction lies with the President in respect of Acts of Parliament.
3. The Fifth Schedule to the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976, empowered the President to increase the area of any Scheduled Area in a State only after consultation with the Governor of that state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. In Assam, the power of direction lies with the Governor for both Acts of Parliament and the state legislature. Statement 2 is correct; for Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, this power lies with the President for parliamentary acts. Statement 3 is correct; the 1976 amendment empowered the President to increase a Scheduled Area's size, but it mandated prior consultation with the state's Governor.
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Textbookmedium
Q23.Consider the following statements regarding amendments related to the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution:
1. The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1988, introduced provisions for setting time limits on the sharing of royalties with District Councils in Tripura and Mizoram.
2. The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1995, made it mandatory for the Governor to consult the North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council and Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council in the exercise of discretionary powers.
3. The Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Act, 1971, was enacted to create the Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) in Assam.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) was created by the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2003. The Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Act, 1971, dealt with autonomous districts in the then Union Territory of Mizoram. Statements 1 and 2 are correct descriptions of the provisions of the 1988 and 1995 amendments, respectively.
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Textbookmedium
Q24.According to the provided text (valid as of 2019),
how many of the states listed below have 'Scheduled Areas' under the Fifth Schedule?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Assam
3. Mizoram
4. Rajasthan
5. Himachal Pradesh
Explanation: The source text explicitly lists ten states with Scheduled Areas (governed by the Fifth Schedule) as of 2019. From the given list, Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Himachal Pradesh are on that list. Assam and Mizoram have Tribal Areas governed by the Sixth Schedule, not Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule. Therefore, only three of the listed states have Scheduled Areas.
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Textbookmedium
Q25.Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Fifth Schedule to the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976, grants the President of India the authority to increase the geographical area of any Scheduled Area within a State.
Statement II: The exercise of this authority by the President is an absolute power and does not require consultation with any state-level authority.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement I is correct as the Fifth Schedule (Amendment) Act, 1976, explicitly empowered the President to increase the area of any Scheduled Area. However, Statement II is incorrect because the same Act specifies that this power must be exercised 'after consultation with the Governor of that state', thus placing a constraint on the President's power.
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Current Affairshard
Q26.Considering the recent demand by Bihar for Special Category Status (SCS) and the constitutional provisions for Scheduled Areas, analyze the following statements:
1. Both Special Category Status and the provisions for Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule are explicitly provided for in the Constitution of India as mechanisms to address backwardness.
2. While the Fifth Schedule focuses on the administration and welfare of tribal populations in specific designated areas, SCS addresses the overall economic and infrastructural backwardness of an entire state.
3. The presence of a sizeable tribal population is a key criterion for both the designation of a Scheduled Area and the potential granting of Special Category Status.
4. The Governor's special responsibility to submit an annual report to the President is a central feature for the administration of both states with SCS and states with Scheduled Areas.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because Special Category Status (SCS) is not a constitutional provision; it was an executive classification based on the recommendation of the 5th Finance Commission. Statement 2 is correct as it accurately distinguishes the focus of the Fifth Schedule (tribal welfare in specific areas) from SCS (overall state backwardness). Statement 3 is correct because the presence of 'aboriginals' is the reason for Scheduled Areas, and a 'sizeable share of tribal population' is one of the Gadgil Formula criteria for SCS. Statement 4 is incorrect because the Governor's special responsibility and the requirement of an annual report to the President are specific to the administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, not a feature of the SCS framework.
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Current Affairshard
Q27.Consider the following statements regarding constitutional safeguards for tribal populations in India:
1. The power of the Governor in a Scheduled Area to make regulations that can amend an Act of Parliament is analogous in purpose to the power of the Nagaland Legislative Assembly under Article 371A, as both aim to protect local customs and land rights.
2. A key procedural difference is that regulations made by the Governor for a Scheduled Area require the President's assent, whereas a decision by the Nagaland Legislative Assembly under Article 371A is effective without requiring such assent.
3. The constitutional provisions for the administration of Scheduled Areas (Article 244) and the special provisions for states like Nagaland (Article 371A) are both contained in Part XXI of the Constitution, titled “Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions”.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as both mechanisms serve to filter or modify central legislation to protect local interests, particularly concerning customs and land. Statement 2 is correct; the Governor's regulations for Scheduled Areas explicitly require the President's assent, while Article 371A grants the Nagaland Assembly the authority to decide on the applicability of Parliamentary acts on specific subjects without needing further assent. Statement 3 is incorrect. Provisions for Scheduled Areas (Article 244) are in Part X of the Constitution, whereas the special provisions under Articles 371-371J are in Part XXI.
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Current Affairshard
Q28.Considering the ongoing demands for Sixth Schedule status for Ladakh, evaluate the following statements based on historical precedents and constitutional provisions:
1. The creation of the Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) through the Sixth Schedule (Amendment) Act, 2003, established a precedent for creating a large, empowered autonomous council via constitutional amendment, a path similar to what is being demanded for Ladakh.
2. The regulations for Ladakh issued under Article 240 provide a level of legislative autonomy over land and forests comparable to the powers granted to the North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council by the 1995 amendment.
3. The extension of the Sixth Schedule to Ladakh, a Union Territory, is constitutionally straightforward as the schedule has been previously amended to include provisions for the Union Territory of Mizoram through the Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Act, 1971.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; the BTC was created via a constitutional amendment to the Sixth Schedule, which is the process Ladakh's leaders are demanding. Statement 2 is incorrect; regulations under Article 240 are administrative and can be revoked by the Centre, whereas the 1995 amendment granted legislative powers to the council, a key feature of the Sixth Schedule that the LAHDCs lack. Statement 3 is correct; the Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Act, 1971, did amend the Sixth Schedule to include provisions for the then Union Territory of Mizoram, setting a precedent for applying the schedule to a UT.
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Current Affairshard
Q29.In the context of Ladakh's demand for inclusion in the Sixth Schedule, consider the following statements:
1. The demand is primarily driven by Ladakh's demographic profile, with over 97% of its population being tribal, aligning with the intended beneficiaries of the Sixth Schedule.
2. Inclusion would establish Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) with legislative powers, aiming to rectify the 'representation deficit' that arose after Ladakh lost its assembly representation under the Jammu & Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019.
3. The existing Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils (LAHDCs) are considered constitutionally weaker than the ADCs that would be formed under the Sixth Schedule, lacking similar powers to protect land and resources.
4. The demand for a dedicated Public Service Commission (PSC) for Ladakh is a power that would be directly granted to the Autonomous District Councils upon their formation under the Sixth Schedule.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Ladakh's high tribal population is the core rationale. The creation of powerful ADCs under the 6th Schedule is sought to compensate for the loss of legislative representation and provide stronger safeguards than the existing LAHDCs. Statement 4 is incorrect; the power to create a Public Service Commission is typically associated with statehood. While ADCs have powers over certain services, a full-fledged PSC is part of Ladakh's separate demand for statehood, not a direct power granted by the Sixth Schedule itself.
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Current Affairshard
Q30.With reference to the constitutional and administrative framework governing tribal areas, which of the following statements regarding the potential inclusion of Ladakh in the Sixth Schedule is NOT correct?
Explanation: Statement (d) is incorrect. While ADCs have powers over land and can receive a share of royalties from mineral licenses, the regulation of major minerals remains largely under the control of the Union and State governments, as governed by acts like the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act. The Sixth Schedule does not grant ADCs the power to supersede central legislation on major minerals. Statements (a), (b), and (c) accurately describe the constitutional and legislative hurdles and consequences of such a move.
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Current Affairsmedium
Q31.Match the constitutional provisions/acts in List I with their correct relevance to the ongoing demands in Ladakh as described in List II.
List I (Provision/Act)
1. Article 244(2)
2. Fifth Schedule
3. Jammu & Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019
4. Abrogation of Article 370
List II (Relevance to Ladakh)
a. Led to the creation of a Union Territory without a legislature, causing a 'representation deficit'.
b. The constitutional basis for the Sixth Schedule, which provides for administration through Autonomous District Councils.
c. Removed historical special protections for land and employment, increasing the urgency for new constitutional safeguards.
d. A constitutional framework for scheduled areas in various states, but is distinct from the Sixth Schedule framework being demanded by Ladakhi leaders.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: The correct matching is: 1-b (Article 244(2) provides the constitutional basis for the Sixth Schedule), 2-d (The Fifth Schedule deals with scheduled areas in states other than the four northeastern ones and is a different administrative model not being demanded), 3-a (The J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019, bifurcated the state and made Ladakh a UT without a legislature), and 4-c (The abrogation of Article 370 ended the special status that protected Ladakhi land and jobs, fueling the demand for Sixth Schedule protections).
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Current Affairshard
Q32.With reference to the ongoing demands for constitutional safeguards in Ladakh, consider the following statements:
1. The demand for Sixth Schedule status stems from its provision for Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) with legislative powers, a feature largely absent in the administrative framework of the Fifth Schedule.
2. Ladakh's demographic profile, with over 97% of its population belonging to tribal communities, aligns with the core purpose of the Sixth Schedule, which is designed for the administration of predominantly tribal areas.
3. The creation of Ladakh as a Union Territory without a legislature under the Jammu & Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, is a key driver for the demand, as the existing Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils (LAHDCs) are perceived as lacking sufficient legislative authority.
4. Extending the Sixth Schedule, currently applicable only to four northeastern states as per Article 244(2), to the Union Territory of Ladakh would necessitate a constitutional amendment.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: All four statements are correct. 1. The Sixth Schedule provides for powerful ADCs with legislative, judicial, and administrative autonomy, which is a significant upgrade from the Fifth Schedule's framework. 2. The high tribal population is the primary justification for demanding inclusion under the Sixth Schedule. 3. The current affairs text explicitly mentions the 'representation deficit' post the 2019 Act and the inadequacy of LAHDCs as a major reason for the protests. 4. Since Article 244 and the Sixth Schedule explicitly name the four northeastern states, including a new region like Ladakh would require an amendment to the Constitution.
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Current Affairsmedium
Q33.Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional and administrative situation in Ladakh following the enactment of the Jammu & Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019:
1. The Act established Ladakh as a Union Territory with its own legislature, but local leaders argue its powers are insufficient to protect tribal identity.
2. The demand for a dedicated Public Service Commission (PSC) is directly linked to addressing high graduate unemployment and ensuring domicile-based recruitment for Ladakhis.
3. If Ladakh were to be included in the Sixth Schedule, the Governor would be empowered to create Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) with the authority to legislate on local matters such as land use and cultural customs.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The Jammu & Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, established Ladakh as a Union Territory WITHOUT a legislature. This 'representation deficit' is a primary grievance. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The current affairs text explicitly states the demand for a PSC to tackle unemployment and the powers of ADCs under the Sixth Schedule to protect local land and customs.
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Current Affairshard
Q34.In the context of Ladakh's demand for inclusion in the Sixth Schedule, consider the following statements:
1. The Sixth Schedule, under Article 244(2), is sought to empower local communities to legislate on the protection of Ladakh's fragile 'cold desert' ecosystem through Autonomous District Councils (ADCs).
2. The existing Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils (LAHDCs) possess constitutional powers equivalent to the Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) under the Sixth Schedule.
3. The demand for Sixth Schedule status is synonymous with the demand for full statehood, as inclusion in the schedule automatically confers statehood on a territory.
4. The constitutional framework that Ladakh seeks to be included in is currently applied to tribal areas in states governed by the Fifth Schedule.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct. The Sixth Schedule would grant legislative power to ADCs to manage land and environment. Statement 2 is incorrect; the current affairs text explicitly notes that LAHDCs 'lack the legislative teeth' of ADCs. Statement 3 is incorrect; statehood and Sixth Schedule status are two separate demands, although they are being made together. One does not automatically grant the other. Statement 4 is incorrect; Ladakh seeks inclusion in the Sixth Schedule, which applies to Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, not the Fifth Schedule which applies to other states.
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