Q1.Consider the following pairs:
Article : State
1. Article 371A : Nagaland
2. Article 371C : Manipur
3. Article 371G : Mizoram
4. Article 371-I : Goa
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation: Based on the constitutional provisions for special status to states: Article 371A pertains to Nagaland, Article 371C to Manipur, Article 371G to Mizoram, and Article 371-I to Goa. All four pairs are correctly matched.
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Q2.Consider the following statements regarding the special provisions for certain states in Part XXI of the Constitution:
1. These special provisions were included in the original Constitution of 1950 to address regional imbalances.
2. The intent behind these provisions includes protecting the cultural and economic interests of tribal populations and addressing disturbed law and order conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The original Constitution did not contain these special provisions; they were incorporated through various subsequent amendments. Statement 2 is correct as it accurately describes the intentions behind these provisions, which include meeting regional aspirations, protecting tribal interests, and managing law and order.
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Q3.With reference to the special provisions for states under Part XXI of the Constitution,
which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Explanation: The special provision for Arunachal Pradesh (Article 371H) was added by the 55th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1986. The 56th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1987 added the special provision for Goa (Article 371-I). The other statements are correct.
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Q4.Consider the following statements regarding the institutional mechanisms created under the special provisions for states:
1. For the Tuensang district of Nagaland, the Deputy Commissioner acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the regional council.
2. The validity of any action taken by the Governor of Nagaland in the exercise of his individual judgement can be called into question in a court of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; the Deputy Commissioner of the Tuensang district is the ex-officio Chairman of its regional council. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Constitution specifies that the validity of anything done by the Governor in the exercise of his individual judgement shall not be called into question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted.
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Q5.Consider the following pairs:
Constitutional Amendment : Article Added
1. 13th Amendment Act : Article 371A
2. 22nd Amendment Act : Article 371C
3. 32nd Amendment Act : Article 371D
4. 55th Amendment Act : Article 371H
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation: Let's examine the pairs:
1. 13th Amendment Act added Article 371A (Nagaland). This is correct.
2. 22nd Amendment Act added Article 371B (Assam), not 371C. This is incorrect.
3. 32nd Amendment Act added Articles 371D and 371E (Andhra Pradesh). This is correct.
4. 55th Amendment Act added Article 371H (Arunachal Pradesh). This is correct.
Therefore, only three pairs are correctly matched.
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Q6.Under Article 371, the President authorises the Governor of Maharashtra to have special responsibilities. Consider the following purported responsibilities:
1. Establishment of separate development boards for Vidarbha and Marathwada.
2. Equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the specified areas.
3. Ensuring adequate employment opportunities in central government services for the specified areas.
4. Placing a report on the working of the development boards before the Parliament annually.
How many of the above responsibilities are correctly stated?
Explanation: The Governor's special responsibilities include establishing development boards and ensuring equitable allocation of funds. However, the provision for employment opportunities is in state services, not central government services. The report on the boards' working is placed before the State Legislative Assembly, not the Parliament. Therefore, only the first two statements are correct.
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Q7.Consider the following statements regarding the special provisions for Arunachal Pradesh under Article 371-H:
1. The Governor of Arunachal Pradesh has a special responsibility for law and order in the state.
2. In discharging this responsibility, the Governor's decision, taken after consulting the Council of Ministers, is final.
3. The President can, by order, cease the special responsibility of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Article 371-H grants the Governor of Arunachal Pradesh special responsibility for law and order. While discharging this function, the Governor consults the Council of Ministers but exercises individual judgment, and this decision is final. The provision also states that this special responsibility shall cease when the President so directs. All three statements are correct.
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Q8.Consider the following pairs:
1. Article 371 : Special provisions for Maharashtra and Gujarat
2. Article 371-H : Minimum 30 members in Goa Legislative Assembly
3. Article 371-I : Governor's special responsibility for law and order in Arunachal Pradesh
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation: Pair 1 is correctly matched. Article 371 deals with special provisions for Maharashtra and Gujarat. Pair 2 is incorrect; Article 371-H deals with Arunachal Pradesh, while Article 371-I deals with the minimum strength of the Goa Assembly. Pair 3 is incorrect; Article 371-H, not 371-I, deals with the Governor's special responsibility in Arunachal Pradesh. Thus, only one pair is correct.
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Q9.With reference to the special provisions for Maharashtra and Gujarat,
which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Explanation: While the Governor has the special responsibility for equitable allocation of funds, the text does not state that this must be done solely on the advice of the Chief Minister. The concept of 'special responsibility' often implies a degree of discretion or a specific procedural consultation, not necessarily binding advice from one authority. The other statements accurately reflect the provisions of Article 371.
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Q10.Statement I: Article 371-H stipulates that the Arunachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly must consist of not less than 30 members.
Statement II: Article 371-I provides that the Goa Legislative Assembly is to consist of not less than 30 members.
Explanation: Both statements are factually correct as per the provided text. Article 371-H specifies a minimum strength of 30 for the Arunachal Pradesh Assembly, and Article 371-I specifies the same minimum strength for the Goa Assembly. However, they are independent provisions for two different states under two different articles, so Statement II does not explain Statement I.
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Q11.Consider the following pairs regarding special provisions for certain states:
1. Article 371-A : Special responsibility of the Governor for law and order in Nagaland.
2. Article 371-C : Creation of a legislative assembly committee for Hill Areas in Manipur.
3. Article 371-F : Minimum strength of 30 members in the Sikkim Legislative Assembly.
4. Article 371-G : Acts of Parliament on ownership of land require assembly's approval in Mizoram.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation: All four pairs are correctly matched. Article 371-A grants the Governor of Nagaland special responsibility for law and order. Article 371-C provides for a committee for the Hill Areas in the Manipur Assembly. Article 371-F specifies that the Sikkim Assembly shall not have less than 30 members. Article 371-G states that parliamentary acts on land ownership won't apply to Mizoram unless the state assembly decides.
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Q12.With reference to the special responsibility of the Governor of Nagaland for law and order under Article 371-A, consider the following statements:
1. In discharging this responsibility, the Governor must act on the binding advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. The Governor's decision in this matter is final and cannot be questioned.
3. This special responsibility automatically ceases when the President's Rule is imposed in the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; the Governor, after consulting the Council of Ministers, exercises his individual judgement. Statement 2 is correct as the Governor's decision is final. Statement 3 is incorrect; the special responsibility ceases only when the President so directs, not due to any other event.
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Q13.Consider the following statements with respect to the special provisions for Sikkim under Article 371-F:
1. The Sikkim Legislative Assembly is to consist of not less than 30 members.
2. The Governor has a special responsibility for peace and social advancement, which he exercises in his discretion, subject to directions from the President.
3. The President can extend any law in force in a state of the Indian Union to Sikkim.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Explanation: All the statements are correct. Article 371-F provides for a minimum of 30 members in the Sikkim Assembly. It also grants the Governor special responsibility, to be exercised in his discretion subject to Presidential directions. Furthermore, it empowers the President to extend any existing state law to Sikkim, with or without modifications. Since all statements are correct, the correct option is 'None of the above'.
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Q14.Consider the following statements regarding the special provisions for the Tuensang district of Nagaland:
1. The administration of the Tuensang district is carried on by the Governor.
2. Members representing the Tuensang district in the Nagaland Legislative Assembly are directly elected by the people.
3. An Act of the Nagaland Legislature does not apply to the Tuensang district unless the Governor so directs on the recommendation of the regional council.
4. The final decision on all matters relating to the Tuensang district is made by the Governor in his discretion.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect; members from the Tuensang district are not elected directly by the people but by the regional council. Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. The Governor administers the district, has the final say in all matters relating to it in his discretion, and an act of the state legislature requires his direction (based on the regional council's recommendation) to apply to the district. Therefore, only three statements are correct.
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Q15.Consider the following statements:
1. Article 371-B empowers the President to provide for the creation of a committee of the Assam Legislative Assembly consisting of members from the Tribal Areas.
2. Article 371-C authorizes the Governor of Manipur to provide for the creation of a committee of the Manipur Legislative Assembly consisting of members from the Hill Areas.
3. The Central Government can give directions to the State Government of Manipur regarding the administration of its Hill Areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because under Article 371-C, it is the President, not the Governor, who is authorized to provide for the creation of the committee for the Hill Areas of Manipur. Statement 3 is correct as the provision allows the Central Government to give such directions to the State Government of Manipur.
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Q16.With reference to the special provisions for Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, consider the following powers:
1. Providing for equitable opportunities in public employment and education.
2. Specifying parts of the state as local areas for admission to educational institutions.
3. Empowering the Parliament to establish a Central University.
4. Abolishing the Administrative Tribunal when its continued existence is not necessary.
How many of the above powers are vested in the President under Article 371-D?
Explanation: Under Article 371-D, the President is empowered to provide for equitable opportunities, specify local areas for education, and abolish the Administrative Tribunal. The power to provide for the establishment of a Central University is given to the Parliament under Article 371-E, not to the President under Article 371-D.
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Q17.Consider the following statements regarding the Administrative Tribunal established under Article 371-D:
1. The tribunal deals with disputes and grievances relating to appointment, allotment, or promotion to civil posts in the state.
2. The tribunal functions outside the purview of the state High Court.
3. No court, including the Supreme Court, can exercise jurisdiction over matters subject to the tribunal's jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect. While the tribunal functions outside the purview of the state High Court, the Supreme Court retains its jurisdiction over matters dealt with by the tribunal. Statements 1 and 2 are correct descriptions of the tribunal's role and its relationship with the state judiciary.
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Q18.Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The special provisions of Article 371-D, originally for Andhra Pradesh, were extended to the state of Telangana.
Statement II: The extension of these provisions to Telangana was enacted through the Andhra Pradesh Re-organisation Act of 2014.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Statement I is correct as Article 371-D now applies to Telangana. Statement II is also correct and provides the specific legislative mechanism—the Andhra Pradesh Re-organisation Act of 2014—by which this extension was carried out. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.
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Q19.Consider the following pairs:
1. Article 371-D : Empowers Parliament to establish a Central University.
2. Article 371-E : Empowers the President to establish an Administrative Tribunal.
3. Andhra Pradesh Re-organisation Act, 2014 : Extended Article 371-D to Telangana.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation: Only the third pair is correctly matched. Article 371-D empowers the President to establish an Administrative Tribunal, not Parliament to establish a university. Article 371-E empowers Parliament to provide for a Central University, not the President to establish a tribunal. The Andhra Pradesh Re-organisation Act of 2014 did extend Article 371-D to Telangana.
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Q20.With reference to Article 371-D, consider the following statements:
1. The President can require the State Government to organise civil posts in local cadres for different parts of the state.
2. The President can specify the extent of reservation to be given in direct recruitment to posts in any local cadre.
3. These provisions apply only to the state of Andhra Pradesh and not to Telangana.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct as they describe the powers of the President under Article 371-D. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Andhra Pradesh Re-organisation Act of 2014 extended the provisions of Article 371-D to the state of Telangana as well.
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Q21.Statement I: Article 371-J, providing special provisions for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region, was inserted into the Constitution by the 98th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2012.
Statement II: The primary objective of these provisions is to accelerate development in the most backward region of Karnataka and promote inclusive growth to reduce regional disparities.
Explanation: Statement I is factually correct as Article 371-J was added by the 98th Amendment Act in 2012. Statement II correctly states the purpose behind this amendment, which was to address developmental backlogs and reduce disparities in the Hyderabad-Karnataka region. Therefore, Statement II provides the correct rationale for the constitutional action described in Statement I.
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Q22.Under Article 371-J, the Governor of Karnataka has special responsibility for
which of the following?
1. Establishment of a separate development board for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region.
2. Equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the region.
3. Reservation of seats in educational institutions in the region for students belonging to that region.
4. Direct appointment of the Chief Minister from the Hyderabad-Karnataka region.
Explanation: Article 371-J empowers the President to give the Governor of Karnataka special responsibilities, which include establishing a development board, ensuring equitable fund allocation, and providing for reservation in educational institutions and state government posts for the region's residents. There is no provision for the direct appointment of the Chief Minister from the region.
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Q23.Consider the following statements regarding the special provisions for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region:
1. Article 371-J empowers the President to provide the Governor of Karnataka with special responsibilities for the region.
2. A report on the working of the region's development board is to be placed annually before the Parliament of India.
3. The provisions aim to promote employment by providing for local cadres in service within the region.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. The provision under Article 371-J mandates that the report on the working of the development board be placed every year before the State Legislative Assembly, not the Parliament of India. Statements 1 and 3 are correct as the President empowers the Governor, and the provisions explicitly aim to promote employment through local cadres.
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Q24.With reference to the creation of special provisions for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region, consider the following statements:
1. The constitutional amendment for these provisions was initiated after both houses of the Karnataka State Legislature passed resolutions seeking them.
2. Under Article 371-J, the President of India is directly responsible for placing the annual report of the development board before the State Legislative Assembly.
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; the Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council of Karnataka passed resolutions which preceded the constitutional amendment. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the President empowers the Governor, it is the Governor who has the special responsibility for making a provision that a report on the board's working is placed before the State Legislative Assembly.
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Q25.Consider the following aims associated with the special provisions for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region under Article 371-J:
1. Establishing an institutional mechanism for equitable fund allocation.
2. Enhancing human resources through reservation in vocational training institutions.
3. Promoting inclusive growth to reduce inter-regional disparities.
4. Granting autonomous council status to the region, similar to the Sixth Schedule.
How many of the above aims are correctly associated with Article 371-J?
Explanation: The first three aims are explicitly mentioned or are the direct objectives of the provisions under Article 371-J: equitable fund allocation, reservation in educational/vocational institutions, and reducing regional disparities. The fourth aim, granting autonomous council status similar to the Sixth Schedule, is not part of the provisions of Article 371-J. Therefore, only three of the aims are correct.
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Current Affairshard
Q26.Consider the following pairs regarding special provisions for states and the Constitutional Amendment Acts that introduced them:
List-I (State Provision)
1. Nagaland (Article 371A)
2. Manipur (Article 371C)
3. Mizoram (Article 371G)
4. Karnataka (Article 371J)
List-II (Amendment Act)
A. 98th Amendment Act, 2012
B. 53rd Amendment Act, 1986
C. 27th Amendment Act, 1971
D. 13th Amendment Act, 1962
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation: All pairs are correctly matched. Article 371A for Nagaland was added by the 13th Amendment Act, 1962. Article 371C for Manipur was added by the 27th Amendment Act, 1971. Article 371G for Mizoram was added by the 53rd Amendment Act, 1986. Article 371J for Karnataka was added by the 98th Amendment Act, 2012. The current affairs context highlights that these provisions were not original but incorporated through such subsequent amendments.
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Current Affairshard
Q27.Considering the demands for statehood and special protections for Ladakh, analyze the following statements in the context of Part XXI of the Constitution:
1. The core intention behind Ladakh's demand for Sixth Schedule status—protecting the cultural and economic interests of its tribal population—is analogous to the objectives of several articles in the 371 series, such as Article 371A for Nagaland.
2. If Ladakh is granted statehood, creating special provisions for it would necessitate a constitutional amendment to add a new article to Part XXI, following the precedent set for states like Sikkim (Article 371F) and Mizoram (Article 371G).
3. The establishment of a regional council for the Tuensang district under Article 371A serves a similar administrative purpose to the Autonomous District Councils demanded by Ladakh under the Sixth Schedule, although their specific powers and composition differ.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; the static text states that the intention behind Article 371 series is to 'protect the cultural and economic interests of the tribal people,' which aligns with Ladakh's demand for Sixth Schedule protection. Statement 2 is correct; the static text notes that these provisions were not original and were 'incorporated by the various subsequent amendments.' Statement 3 is also correct; both are forms of regional self-governance for specific areas to address unique local needs, as seen in Article 371A for Tuensang and the Sixth Schedule's provisions for Autonomous District Councils.
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Current Affairshard
Q28.In light of the Supreme Court's 2023 verdict declaring Article 370 a temporary provision, consider the following statements comparing it with the special provisions for other states under Articles 371 to 371-J:
1. Both Article 370 and Articles 371-371J are located in Part XXI of the Constitution, which is titled ‘Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions’.
2. The Supreme Court's reasoning for Article 370's temporary nature was its transitional purpose pending the formation of the J&K Constituent Assembly, a rationale that does not apply to provisions like Article 371A (Nagaland) or 371J (Karnataka), which were introduced to protect specific regional interests.
3. Unlike Article 370, which provided for a separate Constitution and flag for Jammu and Kashmir, none of the provisions from Article 371 to 371-J confer a similar level of autonomy or sovereignty to any state.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: All three statements are correct. Statement 1 is a factual recall from the static content. Statement 2 correctly captures the essence of the Supreme Court's verdict on Article 370's temporary nature and contrasts it with the purpose of other special provisions mentioned in the static text (protecting cultural/economic interests). Statement 3 accurately highlights the unique degree of autonomy granted by Article 370, which is not replicated in any of the Articles from 371 to 371-J.
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Current Affairshard
Q29.Considering Bihar's persistent demand for Special Category Status (SCS) and the existing 'Special Provisions' for certain states under Part XXI of the Constitution, analyze the following statements:
1. Special Category Status is a constitutional classification under Part XXI, granting states like Bihar enhanced legislative and political rights.
2. The special provisions under Article 371 are primarily aimed at providing a 90:10 funding ratio for centrally sponsored schemes, which is the core of SCS benefits.
3. While Bihar lacks a constitutional 'Special Provision', states like Nagaland (Art 371A) and Mizoram (Art 371G), which already have such provisions, were also among the first to be granted SCS.
4. The Raghuram Rajan Committee (2013) recommended the extension of constitutional special provisions, similar to Article 371, to 'least developed' states like Bihar.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: SCS is an administrative classification, not constitutional. It deals with financial aspects, not legislative/political rights. Statement 2 is incorrect: The 90:10 funding is a feature of SCS, not the constitutional 'Special Provisions' under Article 371, which focus on administrative, cultural, and economic protections. Statement 3 is correct: It accurately distinguishes between Bihar's demand and the existing status of states like Nagaland, which have both constitutional provisions and were granted SCS. Statement 4 is incorrect: The Raghuram Rajan Committee suggested a new methodology based on a 'multi-dimensional index' for fund devolution, not an extension of Article 371-type provisions. Therefore, only one statement is correct.
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Current Affairshard
Q30.The recent Peace Agreement with the United National Liberation Front (UNLF), a valley-based insurgent group in Manipur, brings focus to the state's administrative framework. In this context, consider the following statements regarding the special provisions for Manipur under Article 371-C:
1. The President is authorized to provide for the creation of a committee of the Manipur Legislative Assembly, comprising members from the valley areas, to address the concerns of the Meitei community.
2. The Governor of Manipur has a special responsibility to submit an annual report to the President regarding the administration of the valley areas where the UNLF was primarily active.
3. The Central Government is empowered to give directions to the State Government of Manipur concerning the administration of the Hill Areas.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 371-C provides for a committee consisting of members elected from the Hill Areas of Manipur, not the valley areas. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Governor's responsibility to submit an annual report to the President is specifically regarding the administration of the Hill Areas, not the valley. Statement 3 is correct as the text explicitly states that the Central Government can give directions to the State Government as to the administration of the Hill Areas. Therefore, only one statement is correct.
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Current Affairshard
Q31.Consider the following statements regarding different forms of reservation policies in Karnataka, drawing from the provisions of Article 371-J and the recent debates on community-based quotas:
1. The reservation provided under Article 371-J for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region is based on regional domicile, whereas the debated Muslim reservation in Karnataka is based on community identity classified as a 'backward class'.
2. The constitutional validity of reservations under Article 371-J stems directly from a specific constitutional amendment, while the validity of the Muslim quota is adjudicated under the general provisions of Articles 15(4) and 16(4) and is subject to judicial scrutiny regarding its classification.
3. The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) has raised concerns about Karnataka's 'blanket reservation' for Muslims, a scrutiny similar to the Andhra Pradesh High Court's objection to treating the Muslim community as a single homogenous group.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: All three statements are correct. Statement 1 correctly differentiates the basis of reservation: regional domicile for Article 371-J versus community identity for the Muslim quota. Statement 2 accurately contrasts the constitutional foundations: the 98th Amendment for Article 371-J versus the general enabling provisions of Articles 15(4) and 16(4) for the Muslim quota. Statement 3 correctly links the NCBC's concern about 'blanket reservation' in Karnataka to the principle established by the AP High Court against treating a diverse community as a homogenous block for reservation purposes.
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Current Affairshard
Q32.With reference to reservation policies in Karnataka, consider the following statements:
1. The constitutional authority for reservations under Article 371-J for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region is derived from a parliamentary amendment, whereas the proposed private sector reservation bill is a state legislative initiative.
2. Both Article 371-J and the proposed 2024 bill aim to provide reservations in the private sector to address regional and domiciliary imbalances.
3. The definition of a beneficiary under Article 371-J is based on belonging to the Hyderabad-Karnataka region, while the 2024 bill defines a 'local candidate' based on birth, residency duration, and language proficiency.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; Article 371-J was inserted by the 98th Constitutional Amendment Act, a parliamentary action, while the private sector quota is a state bill. Statement 3 is also correct, as it accurately contrasts the beneficiary definitions. However, Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 371-J provides for reservation in state government posts and educational institutions for a specific region, not the private sector. The 2024 bill, in contrast, specifically targets the private sector across the entire state. Therefore, only two statements are correct.
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