Question 1

According to Article 1 of the Constitution, the territory of India comprises
which of the following categories?
1. Territories of the states
2. Union territories
3. Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India
4. Autonomous District Council territories
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3 only. Article 1 of the Constitution specifies that the territory of India comprises three categories: the territories of the states, the union territories, and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time. Autonomous District Councils are administrative divisions within certain states and not a separate category of territory under Article 1.

Question 2

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The existence of Union Territories in India is considered a departure from the federal principle.
Statement II: Union Territories are administered directly by the Central government, which holds ultimate authority over them.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.. The federal principle involves a division of powers between the central and state governments. Union Territories, being under the direct control and administration of the Central government, do not share power in the same way states do. This direct central control (Statement II) is the reason why their existence is seen as a unitary feature and a departure from federalism (Statement I).

Question 3

With reference to the constitutional status of territories in India, consider the following statements:
1. States are members of the federal system and share a distribution of power with the Centre.
2. Union Territories are also members of the federal system but with limited power-sharing arrangements.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. Statement 1 is correct; states are the primary units of the Indian federation and share powers with the Central government. Statement 2 is incorrect because Union Territories are not considered members of the federal system in the same vein as states; they are areas under the direct control and administration of the Central government, representing a unitary feature rather than a federal one.

Question 4

Consider the following characterizations of territories within India:
1. Areas under the direct control of the Central government.
2. Members of the federal system sharing power with the Centre.
3. Centrally administered territories.
How many of the above descriptions apply to Union Territories?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Union Territories are described as being under the 'direct control and administration of the Central government' (Description 1 is correct) and are also known as 'centrally administered territories' (Description 3 is correct). However, they are distinct from states, which are described as 'members of the federal system... and share a distribution of power with the Centre' (Description 2 is incorrect for Union Territories). Therefore, only two of the descriptions apply.

Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding the nature of the Indian polity:
1. The relationship between the Central government and the States is purely federal.
2. The relationship between the Central government and the Union Territories is plainly unitary.
3. The Indian Constitution exclusively provides for a federal system of government.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 2 is correct, as the text explicitly states the relationship between New Delhi and the Union Territories is 'plainly unitary'. Statement 1 is incorrect; while the relationship is largely federal, it has strong unitary features. Statement 3 is incorrect because the existence of Union Territories, which are centrally administered, constitutes a 'conspicuous departure from federalism', indicating the Constitution provides for both federal and unitary features. Thus, only one statement is correct.

Question 6

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: During the British Rule, certain areas that would later form Union Territories were initially constituted as 'scheduled districts' and later known as 'chief commissioners provinces'.
Statement II: After independence, these territories were placed in the category of Part C States and Part D Territories before being formally constituted as Union Territories.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are factually correct and describe the historical evolution of Union Territories in chronological order. However, Statement II describes the next phase in the evolution after independence; it does not explain why the British designated certain areas as chief commissioners provinces. Therefore, it is not the correct explanation for Statement I.

Question 7

Match the following Union Territories with the primary reason for their creation:
1. Chandigarh : a. Strategic importance
2. Puducherry : b. Cultural distinctiveness
3. Lakshadweep : c. Political and administrative consideration
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

1-c and 2-b only. Chandigarh was created for political and administrative considerations. Puducherry was created to preserve its cultural distinctiveness. Lakshadweep, along with the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, was created due to its strategic importance. Therefore, only the first two pairs are correctly matched.

Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding the creation of Union Territories:
1. The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act (1956) and the States Reorganisation Act (1956) were responsible for the initial constitution of Union Territories from former Part C and Part D territories.
2. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, created two Union Territories, Ladakh (without a legislature) and Jammu and Kashmir (with a legislature).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 2. Both statements are correct. The 7th Amendment and the States Reorganisation Act of 1956 established the category of 'Union Territory'. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act of 2019 bifurcated the state into two UTs, with Jammu and Kashmir having a legislature and Ladakh not having one.

Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding the names of Union Territories:
1. Until 1973, Lakshadweep was known by the name of Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands.
2. In 1992, Delhi was redesignated as the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
3. Until 2006, Puducherry was known as Pondicherry.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

None of the above. All three statements are factually correct. Lakshadweep was renamed in 1973, Delhi was redesignated in 1992, and Pondicherry was renamed Puducherry in 2006. Since the question asks for the incorrect statements, and all are correct, the answer is 'None of the above'.

Question 10

Consider the following entities:
1. Himachal Pradesh
2. Goa
3. Mizoram
4. Arunachal Pradesh
5. Manipur
How many of the above were formerly Union Territories before being elevated to statehood?

Accepted Answer

All five. All five entities listed were formerly Union Territories. The source text explicitly mentions Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, and Goa as states that were previously union territories.

Question 11

Consider the following pairs:
Union Territory : Judicial Jurisdiction
1. Lakshadweep : Kerala High Court
2. Andaman and Nicobar Islands : Madras High Court
3. Puducherry : Madras High Court
4. Chandigarh : Punjab and Haryana High Court
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only three pairs. Pair 1 is correct; Lakshadweep is under the Kerala High Court. Pair 2 is incorrect; the Andaman and Nicobar Islands are under the jurisdiction of the Calcutta High Court. Pair 3 is correct; Puducherry is under the Madras High Court. Pair 4 is correct; Chandigarh is under the Punjab and Haryana High Court. Therefore, three pairs are correctly matched.

Question 12

With reference to the legislative powers concerning Union Territories, consider the following statements:
1. Parliament's power to legislate on State List subjects for a Union Territory remains unaffected even after the establishment of a local legislature for it.
2. The legislative assembly of Delhi has the power to make laws on all subjects in the State List and the Concurrent List.
3. A regulation promulgated by the President for a Union Territory can amend an act of Parliament in its application to that territory.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct; the text explicitly states that Parliament's power to make laws on any subject for UTs (including from the State List) is not diminished by the creation of a local legislature. Statement 2 is incorrect; the legislative assembly of Delhi cannot make laws on the State List subjects of public order, police, and land. Statement 3 is correct; a regulation made by the President has the same force as an act of Parliament and can repeal or amend any such act in relation to the specific union territories.

Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding the administration of Union Territories:
1. An administrator of a union territory is an agent of the President and not a head of state like a governor.
2. The President can specify the designation of an administrator as Lieutenant Governor, Chief Commissioner, or Administrator.
3. The Union Territory of Ladakh is administered by an Administrator.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

3 only. Statements 1 and 2 are correct as they accurately describe the role and designation of an administrator. Statement 3 is incorrect; the administrator for Ladakh is designated as 'Lieutenant Governor', not 'Administrator'. The designation 'Administrator' applies to Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu.

Question 14

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The President of India can legislate for the Union Territory of Puducherry by making regulations.
Statement II: The President's power to make regulations for Puducherry is exercisable only when the legislative assembly is suspended or dissolved.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct?

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.. Statement I is correct; the President does have the power to make regulations for Puducherry. Statement II is also correct and provides the specific condition under which this power can be exercised. The power is not absolute or available at all times; it is contingent upon the assembly being suspended or dissolved. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for the conditional nature of the power mentioned in Statement I.

Question 15

The President of India has the power to make regulations for the peace, progress, and good government of certain Union Territories. This power applies to
how many of the territories mentioned below?
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Delhi
3. Lakshadweep
4. Jammu and Kashmir
5. Ladakh

Accepted Answer

Only three. The Constitution empowers the President to make regulations for the peace, progress, and good government of specific union territories. According to the provided text, this list includes the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu, and Ladakh. From the options provided, this power applies to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, and Ladakh. It does not apply to Delhi or Jammu and Kashmir in this manner, as they have legislative assemblies. Therefore, the power applies to three of the listed territories.

Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991:
1. It redesignated the Union Territory of Delhi as the National Capital Region of Delhi.
2. It fixed the strength of the Delhi Legislative Assembly at 70 members.
3. It stipulated that the strength of the council of ministers shall be ten per cent of the assembly's total strength.
4. It mandated that elections to the assembly be conducted by a special election commission for Delhi.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two statements. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The 69th Amendment Act fixed the assembly strength at 70 and the council of ministers at 10% of that strength. However, Statement 1 is incorrect; it was redesignated as the National Capital 'Territory', not 'Region'. Statement 4 is incorrect; the elections are conducted by the Election Commission of India, not a special body.

Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding the executive of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
1. The Chief Minister is appointed by the Lieutenant Governor, similar to the governor's role in a state.
2. The ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. Statement 1 is incorrect. Unlike in states, the Chief Minister of Delhi is appointed by the President, not the Lieutenant Governor. Statement 2 is correct, as ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. Statement 3 is also correct, as the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the assembly.

Question 18

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The Legislative Assembly of Delhi can make laws on all matters in the State List and the Concurrent List.
Statement II: In case of a conflict, a law enacted by the Parliament on a concurrent subject will prevail over a law made by the Delhi Assembly.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct?

Accepted Answer

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.. Statement I is incorrect because the Delhi Assembly's power to legislate on the State List does not extend to three subjects: public order, police, and land. Statement II is correct, as the Constitution provides for the supremacy of Parliamentary law over that of the Delhi Assembly in case of a repugnancy.

Question 19

With reference to the administration of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, consider the following functions:
1. Deciding on a matter in case of a difference of opinion between the Lt. Governor and his ministers.
2. Imposing President's rule in the territory 'otherwise' than on a report of the Lt. Governor.
3. Appointing the ministers, other than the Chief Minister, on the advice of the Chief Minister.
How many of the above functions are performed by the President of India?

Accepted Answer

All three. All three functions are performed by the President. The President is the final arbiter in disputes between the Lt. Governor and ministers. The President can impose his rule based on the Lt. Governor's report or 'otherwise'. The President also appoints the other ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister.

Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding the ordinance-making power of the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi:
1. An ordinance can be promulgated only when the assembly is in recess.
2. An ordinance must be approved by the assembly within six weeks from its reassembly.
3. The Lt. Governor cannot promulgate an ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended.
4. The prior permission of the President is not required for the promulgation of an ordinance.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3 only. Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct procedural aspects of the Lt. Governor's ordinance power. An ordinance can only be issued during recess, requires assembly approval within six weeks of reassembly, and cannot be issued if the assembly is dissolved/suspended. Statement 4 is incorrect; the prior permission of the President is a mandatory prerequisite for the promulgation or withdrawal of any ordinance by the Lt. Governor.

Question 21

Statement I: The Ministry of Home Affairs is designated as the nodal ministry for a wide range of matters concerning Union Territories, including legislation, finance, and services.
Statement II: This designation and the scope of responsibilities are defined under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1961.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.. Statement I is correct as the Ministry of Home Affairs is indeed the nodal ministry for UT matters. Statement II is also correct and provides the specific legal basis for this arrangement, the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1961, thus correctly explaining Statement I.

Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding the Advisory Committees for Union Territories:
1. The Administrator's Advisory Committee (AAC) is chaired by the Union Home Minister.
2. The primary function of these committees is to approve the annual budget for the Union Territory.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Neither 1 nor 2. Statement 1 is incorrect; the Administrator's Advisory Committee (AAC) is chaired by the Administrator of the concerned UT, not the Union Home Minister. Statement 2 is incorrect; the committees are forums to discuss general issues relating to social and economic development, not to approve budgets.

Question 23

With reference to the administration of Union Territories, consider the following statements:
1. The Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for the appointment of Lt. Governors and Administrators.
2. The Home Minister's Advisory Committee (HMAC) has the power to overrule decisions made by the Administrator of a UT.
3. The forum of an advisory committee is available only to Union Territories that have a legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct; the MHA is the nodal ministry for appointments of Lt. Governors and Administrators. Statement 2 is incorrect; the committees are 'advisory' in nature and discuss issues, they do not have powers to overrule administrative decisions. Statement 3 is incorrect; these committees are specifically for the six UTs without a legislature.

Question 24

With reference to the composition of Advisory Committees for Union Territories without a legislature, consider the following potential members:
1. The Member of Parliament from the respective UT
2. Elected members from the Municipal Council of the respective UT
3. The Administrator of the concerned UT
4. The Union Home Minister
How many of the above are mentioned as 'members' of these committees?

Accepted Answer

Only two. The text explicitly lists the 'Member of Parliament' and 'elected members from the local bodies e.g. District Panchayats and Municipal Council' as members. The Administrator and Union Home Minister are mentioned as chairpersons of the AAC and HMAC respectively, not as general members. Therefore, only two of the listed individuals/groups are mentioned as 'members'.

Question 25

Consider the following pairs related to the administration of Union Territories:
1. Nodal Ministry for UT budget : Ministry of Finance
2. Chair of HMAC : Union Home Minister
3. Chair of AAC : Administrator of the concerned UT
4. Members of Advisory Committees : Appointed by the President of India
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is incorrect; the Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for budget matters. Pair 2 is correct. Pair 3 is correct. Pair 4 is incorrect; members include elected representatives from local bodies and the MP, not appointees of the President. Therefore, only two pairs (2 and 3) are correctly matched.

Question 26

Consider the following statements comparing the constitutional status of States and Union Territories in India:
1. The nature of the relationship with the Centre is federal for States and unitary for Union Territories.
2. States possess autonomy, whereas Union Territories are administered under the direct control of the Centre.
3. A key similarity between States and Union Territories is the uniformity in their administrative set-up.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is correct as States share a federal relationship with the Centre, involving a distribution of powers, while Union Territories have a unitary relationship, being directly administered by the Centre. Statement 2 is also correct; States have autonomy in their governance, whereas Union Territories do not and are under the Centre's direct control. Statement 3 is incorrect because while States have a uniform administrative set-up, there is no such uniformity among Union Territories.

Question 27

Consider the following characteristics with respect to the governance of territories in India:
1. A federal relationship with the Centre.
2. Direct control and administration by the Centre.
3. Uniformity in their administrative set-up.
4. The executive head acts as an agent of the president.
How many of the above characteristics correctly describe Union Territories?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Out of the given characteristics, two correctly describe Union Territories. They are under the direct control and administration of the Centre (unitary relationship, not federal), and their executive head (Administrator/LG) is an agent of the president. There is no uniformity in their administrative set-up, and their relationship with the Centre is unitary, not federal. Therefore, statements 2 and 4 are correct.

Question 28

Consider the following pairs:
Article : Subject-Matter
1. Article 239A : Special provisions with respect to Delhi
2. Article 239B : Power of administrator to promulgate Ordinances
3. Article 240 : Power of President to make regulations for certain Union territories
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is incorrectly matched; Article 239AA contains special provisions for Delhi, while Article 239A deals with the creation of local Legislatures or Councils of Ministers for certain UTs. Pair 2 is correctly matched as Article 239B grants the administrator the power to promulgate Ordinances. Pair 3 is also correctly matched as Article 240 empowers the President to make regulations for certain UTs. Thus, only two pairs are correct.

Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding the executive heads in States and Union Territories:
1. The executive head of a State is a constitutional head, whereas the executive head of a Union Territory is an agent of the president.
2. There is uniformity in the designation of the executive head across all Union Territories.
3. Both the Governor of a State and the Administrator of a Union Territory possess autonomy in their functioning.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct. A governor is the constitutional head of a state, while an administrator of a UT is an agent of the president. Statement 2 is incorrect; the executive head of a UT is known by various designations such as administrator, lieutenant governor, or chief commissioner. Statement 3 is incorrect; Governors have a degree of autonomy as constitutional heads, but administrators of UTs do not, as UTs themselves lack autonomy and are directly controlled by the Centre. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

Question 30

Statement I: Parliament's power to legislate on subjects in the State List for a State is restricted to extraordinary circumstances.
Statement II: In relation to Union Territories, Parliament possesses the authority to make laws on any subject enumerated in any of the three lists.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are independently correct. Statement I accurately describes the federal distribution of power where Parliament's jurisdiction over the State List is exceptional. Statement II correctly describes the unitary nature of the Centre-UT relationship, where Parliament has overriding legislative power. However, Statement II explains the legislative power dynamic for UTs, not the reason for the restrictions on Parliament's power concerning States. The reason for the restriction in Statement I is the federal structure itself, not the situation in UTs.

Question 31

Consider the following statements regarding the impact of the Government of NCT of Delhi (Amendment) Act, 2023, on the governance framework established by the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. The 2023 Act introduces the National Capital Civil Service Authority (NCCSA), fundamentally altering the executive power over 'Services' which the Supreme Court had interpreted in its May 2023 judgment to be with the elected government.
2. The 2023 Act effectively modifies the 'aid and advise' provision of Article 239AA by granting the Lt. Governor's decision finality in case of a difference of opinion on recommendations made by the NCCSA.
3. The 2023 Act explicitly transfers the power to appoint the Chief Minister from the President to the Lt. Governor, aligning it with the practice in full-fledged states.
4. The 2023 Act expands the legislative competence of the Delhi Assembly by adding 'Services' to its jurisdiction, while keeping public order, police, and land as exceptions.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct as the 2023 Act created the NCCSA to make recommendations on 'Services', thereby overriding the Supreme Court's judgment that gave this power to the elected government. Statement 2 is correct because the Act specifies that in case of a difference of opinion within the NCCSA, the decision of the Lt. Governor shall be final. Statement 3 is incorrect; the 69th Amendment states the Chief Minister is appointed by the President, and the 2023 Act did not change this provision. Statement 4 is incorrect; the 2023 Act did the opposite, it curtailed the power of the elected government over 'Services', it did not expand the Assembly's legislative competence. Therefore, only two statements are correct.

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