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Indian Polity

State Council of Ministers

UPSC Indian Polity MCQs on State Council of Ministers — topic-wise, with answer explanations.

Lesson
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Indian PolityLesson 27

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Q1.Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional provisions for the State Council of Ministers: 1. Article 163 of the Constitution deals with the appointment, tenure, and responsibility of the ministers. 2. The Constitution of India does not specify the size of the state council of ministers or the ranking of ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 163 deals with the status of the council of ministers, stating that there shall be a council of ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor. Article 164 deals with other provisions as to Ministers, like their appointment, tenure, responsibility, etc. Statement 2 is correct as the size and ranking are determined by the chief minister based on situational needs.
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Q2.With reference to the composition of the State Council of Ministers, consider the following descriptions: 1. Cabinet Ministers head important government departments and are members of the cabinet. 2. Ministers of State can be given independent charge of departments but are not members of the cabinet. 3. Deputy Ministers are attached to cabinet ministers to assist them and are not given independent charge of a department. How many of the above statements are correct?

Explanation: All three statements correctly describe the different categories of ministers within the State Council of Ministers. Cabinet Ministers form the core decision-making body. Ministers of State are a middle rank who can hold independent charge but are not cabinet members. Deputy Ministers are the junior-most, assisting senior ministers without independent charge.
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Q3.Statement I: The state cabinet is the real centre of authority and the highest decision-making body in the state government. Statement II: The Constitution of India does not specify the size of the state council of ministers or the ranking of ministers, leaving these to be determined by the chief minister.

Explanation: Both statements are factually correct. The state cabinet is indeed the nucleus of power and the highest decision-making authority. It is also true that the Constitution leaves the size and ranking of ministers to the Chief Minister's discretion. However, Statement II is not the direct explanation for Statement I. The cabinet's authority stems from the principles of the parliamentary system and collective responsibility, not merely from the CM's power to determine its size.
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Q4.Consider the following roles attributed to the state cabinet: 1. It is the chief policy formulating body of the state government. 2. It is an advisory body to the governor. 3. It deals with all major legislative and financial matters. 4. It exercises control over higher appointments like constitutional authorities. How many of the above roles are correctly mentioned?

Explanation: All four statements correctly describe the functions of the state cabinet. As the nucleus of the council of ministers, it is the highest decision-making authority, responsible for policy formulation, advising the governor, managing legislative and financial business, handling crises, and overseeing key appointments.
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Q5.Consider the following statements about the hierarchy and functioning of the State Council of Ministers: 1. Ministers of State can attend cabinet meetings only when specially invited for matters concerning their departments. 2. Deputy Ministers are not given independent charge of departments. 3. The Chief Minister is considered the supreme governing authority in the state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: All three statements are correct. Ministers of State are not members of the cabinet and attend its meetings only on special invitation. Deputy Ministers are attached to cabinet ministers to assist them and do not hold independent charge. The Chief Minister stands at the apex of the council of ministers and is the supreme governing authority in the state's politico-administrative system.
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Q6.With reference to the State Council of Ministers, consider the following statements: 1. The advice tendered by the ministers to the Governor can be inquired into by any court. 2. The ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. 3. The decision of the Governor on whether a matter falls within his discretionary power is final and cannot be questioned. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 163 explicitly states that the advice tendered by Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired into in any court. Statements 2 and 3 are correct constitutional provisions regarding the tenure of ministers and the finality of the Governor's decision on discretionary matters.
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Q7.Consider the following statements regarding the provisions for the State Council of Ministers: 1. The total number of ministers, including the chief minister, shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the legislative assembly. 2. The number of ministers in a state, including the chief minister, shall not be less than 12. 3. The state of Bihar was mandated by the 94th Amendment Act of 2006 to have a Minister in charge of tribal welfare. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct provisions added by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003. Statement 3 is incorrect; the 94th Amendment Act of 2006 excluded Bihar from the provision that required it to have a minister for tribal welfare. Therefore, only two statements are correct.
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Q8.Consider the following pairs: Article : Subject Matter 1. Article 163 : Duties of Chief Minister 2. Article 164 : Other provisions as to Ministers 3. Article 167 : Conduct of business of the Government of a State 4. Article 177 : Rights of Ministers as respects the Houses How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Explanation: Pair 1 is incorrectly matched; Article 163 deals with the Council of Ministers aiding and advising the Governor, while the Duties of the Chief Minister are under Article 167. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched; Article 167 deals with the Duties of the Chief Minister, while the Conduct of business is under Article 166. Pair 4 is correctly matched. Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.
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Q9.Consider the following statements regarding the appointment and tenure of a state minister: 1. The Governor administers the oath of office and secrecy to a minister. 2. A minister who is not a member of the state legislature for any period of six consecutive months shall cease to be a minister. 3. The salaries and allowances of ministers are determined by the state legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: All three statements are correct. The Governor administers the oaths to ministers. A non-legislator can be a minister for a maximum of six consecutive months. The state legislature, by law, determines the salaries and allowances of the ministers.
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Q10.Given below are two statements: Statement I: The council of ministers in a state shall be collectively responsible to the state Legislative Assembly. Statement II: The ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Explanation: Both statements are individually correct constitutional provisions under Article 164. Statement I establishes the principle of parliamentary democracy where the executive (Council of Ministers) is accountable to the legislature. Statement II establishes that ministers are appointed by and can be removed by the Governor. While related, the 'pleasure of the Governor' is a separate doctrine and not the direct reason for 'collective responsibility to the assembly'. Collective responsibility implies that the ministry must command the confidence of the assembly to remain in power.
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Q11.Consider the following states: 1. Bihar 2. Chhattisgarh 3. Jharkhand 4. Odisha As per the 94th Amendment Act of 2006, how many of the states listed above are constitutionally required to have a tribal welfare minister?

Explanation: The 94th Amendment Act of 2006 extended the provision for a mandatory tribal welfare minister to the newly formed states of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand, in addition to Odisha and Madhya Pradesh. The same amendment relieved Bihar of this obligation. Therefore, among the states listed, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Odisha are required to have a tribal welfare minister.
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Q12.With reference to state ministers, consider the following statements: 1. A person who is not a member of the state legislature cannot be appointed as a minister. 2. A minister who is a member of the Legislative Assembly has the right to vote in the proceedings of the Legislative Council. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Explanation: A person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed as a minister, but they must become a member of either House within six months. A minister has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of both Houses but can only vote in the House of which they are a member. Therefore, both statements are incorrect.
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Q13.Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Governor of a state appoints the other ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. Statement II: The Governor's choice in appointing ministers is not absolute and is constrained by the recommendation of the Chief Minister. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Explanation: The Constitution mandates that the Governor appoints ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. This provision effectively removes the Governor's discretion in this specific matter, making the Chief Minister's recommendation binding. Therefore, Statement II correctly explains the constitutional constraint inherent in the process described in Statement I.
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Q14.Consider the following commitments made under the oaths administered to a state minister: 1. To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India. 2. To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India. 3. Not to reveal any matter to any person except as required for the due discharge of duties. 4. To do right to all manner of people without fear or favour. How many of the above are part of the 'oath of office'?

Explanation: The oath of office for a state minister includes bearing true faith and allegiance to the Constitution, upholding India's sovereignty and integrity, and doing right to all people without fear or favour. The commitment not to reveal secret matters is part of the separate 'oath of secrecy'. Thus, three of the listed commitments are from the oath of office.
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Q15.Consider the following statements regarding the institutional design for state ministers: 1. The salaries and allowances of ministers are determined by the Governor. 2. A minister who is a member of one House of the state legislature has the right to vote in the proceedings of the other House. 3. A person appointed as a minister, if not a legislator, must become a member of the state legislature within six months. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: The salaries and allowances of ministers are determined by the state legislature, not the Governor. A minister can participate in the proceedings of both Houses but can only vote in the House of which they are a member. It is mandatory for a minister who is not a legislator at the time of appointment to become a member of either House within six months.
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Q16.Consider the following statements regarding the consequences of a no-confidence motion against a state's council of ministers: 1. All ministers, including those from the legislative council, must resign if the motion passes. 2. After losing a confidence vote, the council of ministers can advise the governor to dissolve the legislative assembly. 3. The governor is constitutionally bound to accept the advice of a defeated council of ministers to dissolve the assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: If a no-confidence motion is passed, the entire council of ministers, including members from the legislative council, must resign, reflecting collective responsibility. The defeated council can advise the governor to dissolve the assembly, but the governor is not obligated to accept this advice, especially when the ministry has lost its majority.
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Q17.Statement I: A minister in a state government holds office during the pleasure of the governor. Statement II: The governor can dismiss a minister at any time on his own discretion, without the advice of the chief minister.

Explanation: Statement I is correct as Article 164 states that ministers hold office during the pleasure of the governor. However, Statement II is incorrect because this power of the governor is not discretionary; it can only be exercised on the advice of the chief minister. The chief minister may advise the governor to dismiss a minister due to differences of opinion or dissatisfaction with performance.
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Q18.Consider the following principles related to the state council of ministers: 1. The principle of collective responsibility is explicitly stated in the Constitution. 2. The principle of individual responsibility is a direct consequence of ministers holding office during the governor's pleasure. 3. The Constitution of India provides for a system of legal responsibility of a minister for public acts of the governor. 4. A minister who disagrees with a cabinet decision is constitutionally mandated to resign. How many of the above statements are correct?

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct (Article 164). Statement 2 is correct as individual responsibility flows from the 'pleasure of the governor' clause, exercised on the CM's advice. Statement 4 is correct as it is a core tenet of collective responsibility. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Indian Constitution does not have a provision for the legal responsibility of a minister, meaning their countersignature is not required for a governor's public act to be legal.
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Q19.With reference to the functioning of a state cabinet, consider the following statements: 1. Cabinet decisions are binding only on cabinet-rank ministers and not on other ministers. 2. It is the duty of every minister to support cabinet decisions both within and outside the state legislature. 3. A minister who is not prepared to defend a cabinet decision may publicly express disagreement but continue to hold office. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because cabinet decisions bind all ministers, not just those of cabinet rank. Statement 3 is incorrect because the principle of collective responsibility requires a minister who disagrees with a cabinet decision and is unwilling to defend it to resign. Statement 2 is correct as it accurately describes a minister's duty under collective responsibility.
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Q20.With reference to the constitutional relationship between the Governor and the ministers in a state, consider the following: 1. The Chief Minister can advise the Governor to dismiss a minister. 2. An order of the Governor for a public act must be countersigned by a minister to have legal validity. 3. The courts are barred from inquiring into the advice rendered by ministers to the Governor. How many of the above statements are correct?

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; the Chief Minister can advise the Governor to dismiss a minister to enforce collective responsibility. Statement 3 is also correct; the Constitution explicitly bars judicial inquiry into the advice given by ministers to the Governor. Statement 2 is incorrect; unlike some other systems, there is no provision for the legal responsibility of a minister, and their countersignature is not required for the Governor's orders.
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Q21.With reference to the role of the Council of Ministers (CoM) in a State, consider the following statements: 1. A CoM must always exist to advise the Governor, even after the resignation of the ministry. 2. The Governor must act on the aid and advice of the CoM in all spheres without any exception. 3. The constitutional requirement for the 'satisfaction of the Governor' implies the personal satisfaction of the individual holding the office. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: Only the first statement is correct. The Supreme Court has ruled that a Council of Ministers must always exist to advise the governor. However, the Governor is not bound by the CoM's advice in matters where he can exercise his discretion. Furthermore, the 'satisfaction of the Governor' is constitutionally interpreted as the satisfaction of the Council of Ministers, not his personal satisfaction.
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Q22.Consider the following statements: Statement I: The decision of the Governor on whether a matter falls within his discretionary power is final. Statement II: The advice tendered by the Council of Ministers to the Governor can be enquired into by any court to ensure constitutional compliance.

Explanation: According to Article 163, if any question arises on whether a matter is a discretionary one for the Governor, his decision is final and cannot be questioned. The same article also prohibits any court from inquiring into the nature of advice tendered by ministers to the Governor. Therefore, Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
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Q23.Consider the following regarding the conduct of government business in a State: 1. All executive actions of the state government are expressed to be taken in the name of the Chief Minister. 2. The Governor makes rules for the allocation of business among ministers. 3. The validity of an order authenticated in the Governor's name can be challenged in court on the ground that it was not actually made by the Governor. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: Only the second statement is correct. All executive actions are taken in the name of the Governor, not the Chief Minister. The Governor makes rules for the allocation of business among ministers. The validity of an order properly authenticated in the Governor's name cannot be legally challenged on the grounds that the Governor did not personally make or execute it.
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Q24.Consider the following statements regarding the Governor's functions and powers: 1. The Governor is required to make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the state government. 2. The question of whether a matter falls within the Governor's discretion can be judicially reviewed. 3. The advice tendered by ministers to the Governor is confidential and cannot be enquired into by any court. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution specifies that if any question arises whether a matter falls within the Governor's discretion or not, the decision of the Governor is final and its validity cannot be questioned. Statements 1 and 3 are correct descriptions of the Governor's procedural rule-making power and the confidential nature of ministerial advice, respectively.
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Q25.With reference to the executive functions of the Governor, consider the following statements: 1. All orders and instruments of the state government must be personally executed by the Governor to be valid. 2. The Governor has to act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, except in spheres where he is to act in his discretion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: Statement 2 is correct as the Governor is bound by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, except for his discretionary functions. Statement 1 is incorrect; orders are executed in the Governor's name but are authenticated according to rules made by him, and their validity cannot be challenged on the grounds that he did not personally execute them.
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Q26.Consider the following duties of a Chief Minister with respect to the Governor: 1. To communicate all decisions of the council of ministers relating to state administration and legislative proposals. 2. To furnish any information relating to state administration that the Governor may call for. 3. To submit for the consideration of the council of ministers any matter decided by a single minister, if the Governor requires it. How many of the duties listed above are correct as per the constitutional framework?

Explanation: The duties of the Chief Minister include: communicating all decisions of the council of ministers to the governor; furnishing information that the governor may call for; and, if the governor requires, submitting for the council's consideration any matter on which a minister has taken a decision without the council's consideration. All three statements are correct.
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Q27.Consider the following two statements: Statement I: A minister in a state with a bicameral legislature has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council. Statement II: A minister is entitled to vote in the proceedings of both Houses of the State Legislature to ensure the government's majority.

Explanation: Statement I is correct as a minister has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of both houses. However, Statement II is incorrect. A minister is explicitly not entitled to vote in a house of which they are not a member. The right to participate does not confer the right to vote.
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Q28.With reference to the interaction between the Chief Minister and the Governor, consider the following statements: 1. The Chief Minister is obligated to automatically submit any matter for the council's consideration if a decision has been taken by an individual minister but not by the council as a whole. 2. The Governor has the authority to call for information from the Chief Minister regarding proposals for legislation. 3. The Chief Minister must communicate all decisions of the council of ministers to the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because the Chief Minister's duty to submit a single minister's decision to the council is not automatic; it is conditional upon the Governor requiring it. Statements 2 and 3 are correct descriptions of the Chief Minister's duties to furnish information and communicate all council decisions to the Governor.
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Q29.Consider the following pairs regarding the roles and rights in a State Government: 1. Minister's Right to Participate : Includes the right to vote in any committee of the legislature of which they are a member. 2. CM's Duty to Inform : Communicating all decisions of the Council of Ministers to the Governor. 3. Governor's Prerogative : Requiring the CM to submit a single minister's decision for the Council's consideration. How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Explanation: Pair 1 is incorrectly matched; while a minister can participate in a committee they are a member of, the text states a general limitation that 'he shall not be entitled to vote', which applies to proceedings where they are not a member of the house. Pair 2 is correctly matched as it is a primary duty of the CM. Pair 3 is also correctly matched as the Governor's requirement is the trigger for the CM's duty to submit a minister's decision to the council. Therefore, only two pairs are correct.
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Q30.With reference to the legislative participation rights of a minister in a state, consider the following statements: 1. A minister has the right to speak in the proceedings of a House of the State Legislature of which he is not a member. 2. A minister can participate in the proceedings of a legislative committee only if he is a named member of that committee. 3. A minister's right to participate in the proceedings of a House also grants him the right to vote in that House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; a minister can speak in both houses. Statement 2 is also correct; participation in a committee is contingent on being 'named a member' of it. Statement 3 is incorrect; the right to participate is explicitly separated from the right to vote, and a minister is not entitled to vote in a house of which they are not a member.
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Q31.Consider the following statements regarding cabinet committees: 1. The composition and nomenclature of cabinet committees are fixed by the state legislature. 2. Cabinet committees are always permanent in nature to ensure policy continuity. 3. They are set up by the chief minister according to the needs of the situation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: Cabinet committees are established by the chief minister, not the legislature. Their number, name, and composition vary based on the requirements of the time. They can be either permanent (standing) or temporary (ad hoc), not always permanent.
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Textbookhard

Q32.With reference to the functions of cabinet committees, consider the following statements: 1. They can take decisions, but these decisions can be reviewed by the cabinet. 2. They are empowered to sort out issues and formulate proposals for the cabinet's consideration. 3. The decisions made by ad hoc committees are final, while those of standing committees are reviewable. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Explanation: The cabinet can review the decisions of all its committees, regardless of whether they are standing or ad hoc. Therefore, the distinction made in the third statement is incorrect. The first two statements accurately describe the functions and powers of cabinet committees.
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Q33.Statement I: The number, nomenclature, and composition of cabinet committees vary from time to time. Statement II: Cabinet committees are set up by the chief minister based on the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation.

Explanation: Statement I is a factual observation about the changing nature of cabinet committees. Statement II provides the underlying reason for this variability: they are created and modified by the chief minister in response to changing circumstances and needs, which directly explains why their structure is not static.
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Q34.Consider the following types of cabinet committees and their characteristics: 1. Standing Committees: They are of a temporary nature. 2. Ad hoc Committees: They are of a permanent nature. 3. All Cabinet Committees: Their decisions cannot be reviewed by the cabinet. How many of the above statements is/are correctly stated?

Explanation: All three statements are incorrect. Standing committees are permanent, not temporary. Ad hoc committees are temporary, not permanent. The cabinet can review the decisions of all its committees.
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Q35.Consider the following pairs: 1. Standing Committee : Permanent in nature 2. Ad hoc Committee : Temporary in nature 3. Committee decisions : Subject to cabinet review How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Explanation: Standing committees are defined as being of a permanent nature. Ad hoc committees are defined as being of a temporary nature. The decisions of cabinet committees, while significant, are subject to review by the cabinet. Therefore, all three pairs are correctly matched.
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Current Affairshard

Q36.Considering the constitutional duties of a Chief Minister (CM) towards the Governor and recent controversies surrounding the Governor's office, how many of the following statements are correct? 1. The Governor's power to call for information on state administration is a constitutional duty for the Chief Minister to fulfill, even if it is perceived as political interference. 2. In a scenario like the 2023 Tamil Nadu bill controversy, the Governor can constitutionally require the CM to submit the legislative proposal itself for the Council of Ministers' consideration, even if it was sponsored by a single minister. 3. The Chief Minister's duty to communicate with the Governor extends to all decisions of the Council of Ministers and proposals for legislation, forming a critical information channel. 4. A minister's right to speak in a legislative house of which they are not a member is absolute, but their inability to vote in that house preserves the principle of representation.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; it is the CM's duty to furnish information the Governor calls for. Statement 3 is correct as the static text explicitly mentions communicating 'all decisions' and 'proposals for legislation'. Statement 4 is correct as ministers can speak in any house but can only vote where they are a member. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Governor's power to require Council consideration applies to a 'decision taken by a minister', which refers to an executive decision, not a legislative proposal or bill being debated in the legislature.
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Current Affairshard

Q37.With reference to Cabinet Committees in India, consider the following statements: 1. They are extra-constitutional bodies established under the Government of India Transaction of Business Rules, 1961. 2. At the Union level, they are set up by the Prime Minister, whereas at the state level, they are typically set up by the Chief Minister. 3. Their decisions are final and binding on the ministries and cannot be reviewed by the Cabinet. 4. Their membership is strictly limited to Cabinet Ministers only. How many of the above statements are correct?

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Cabinet Committees are indeed extra-constitutional, provided for by the Rules of Business. The current affairs article confirms they are set up by the PM at the Union level, and the static content confirms they are set up by the CM at the state level. Statement 3 is incorrect; both the static and current affairs texts explicitly state that the Cabinet can review their decisions. Statement 4 is incorrect; the current affairs article mentions that while they usually include Cabinet Ministers, non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from membership.
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