Salient Features of the Constitution

Q1.Consider the following pairs: 1. Part IX-A : The Panchayats 2. Part X : The Scheduled and Tribal Areas 3. Part XIV-A : Tribunals 4. Part XV : Official Language How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q2.With reference to the factors contributing to the large size of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. The influence of the Government of India Act of 1935, which was itself a bulky document, is considered a significant historical factor. 2. Unlike some federations, India has a single Constitution for both the Union and the states. 3. Matters typically left to ordinary legislation in other democratic countries were included within the constitutional document itself. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q3.Consider the following statements regarding the structure of the Indian Constitution: 1. The Constitution of India, as originally adopted in 1949, contained a Preamble, 395 Articles, and 8 Schedules. 2. Part VII of the Constitution, dealing with the States in Part B of the First Schedule, was added by an amendment after 1951. 3. The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) is referred to as the 'Mini-Constitution' because of the substantial number of changes it introduced. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q4.Consider the following subjects and their corresponding Schedules in the Indian Constitution: 1. Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha : Fourth Schedule 2. Administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram : Fifth Schedule 3. Division of powers between the Union and the States : Seventh Schedule 4. Powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities : Eleventh Schedule How many of the above are correctly matched?

Q5.Statement I: Article 123 of the Constitution of India grants the President the power to promulgate Ordinances during the recess of Parliament. Statement II: The Constitution of India is a comprehensive document that provides a single constitutional framework for both the Centre and the states.

Q6.Consider the following pairs: Feature of the Constitution : Source 1. Procedure for amendment of the Constitution : South African Constitution 2. Federation with a strong Centre : US Constitution 3. Joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament : Australian Constitution 4. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency : Weimar Constitution of Germany How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q7.Given below are two statements: Statement I: Critics of the Constituent Assembly described the Indian Constitution as a 'borrowed Constitution' or a 'bag of borrowings'. Statement II: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar responded to this criticism by stating that the framers had made necessary modifications to the borrowed features to suit Indian conditions, while avoiding their faults. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q8.With reference to the Government of India Act of 1935 as a source for the Indian Constitution, how many of the features listed below were drawn from it? 1. Federal Scheme 2. Office of Governor 3. Fundamental Rights 4. Public Service Commissions 5. Emergency provisions

Q9.Consider the following statements regarding the sources of the Indian Constitution: 1. The principle of Cabinet Government is largely drawn from the British Constitution. 2. The ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in the Preamble are inspired by the Soviet Constitution. 3. The procedure for the election of members of the Rajya Sabha was borrowed from the South African Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q10.With reference to the sources of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. The philosophical part of the Constitution, comprising Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy, draws its inspiration from the American and Irish Constitutions, respectively. 2. While the US Constitution provided for the independence of the judiciary, the Canadian Constitution provided the model for the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. 3. The structural part of the Constitution, including the Federal Scheme and Public Service Commissions, is primarily derived from the British Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q11.Consider the following features of the Indian Constitution: 1. Independent judiciary 2. Single citizenship 3. Appointment of state governor by the Centre 4. Bicameralism 5. All-India services How many of the above are considered unitary or non-federal features?

Q12.With reference to the Parliamentary System of Government in India, consider the following statements: 1. It is based on the doctrine of separation of powers between the legislative and executive organs. 2. A fundamental difference with the British system is that the Indian State has an elected head. 3. The Indian Parliament is a sovereign body, similar in power to the British Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q13.Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Constitution of India is described as a synthesis of rigidity and flexibility. Statement II: All amendments to the Indian Constitution, including those passed by a simple majority of the Parliament, are governed by the procedure laid out in Article 368.

Q14.With reference to the balance between parliamentary sovereignty and judicial supremacy in the Indian constitutional framework, consider the following statements: 1. The scope of judicial review in India is wider than in the United States because the Indian Constitution provides for 'due process of law'. 2. The Indian Constitution establishes a synthesis by allowing Parliament to amend major parts of the Constitution while empowering the Supreme Court to declare parliamentary laws unconstitutional. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q15.Consider the following pairs regarding the characterization of Indian federalism: 1. Quasi-federal : Granville Austin 2. Bargaining federalism : Morris Jones 3. Co-operative federalism : Ivor Jennings How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q16.Consider the following statements: Statement I: Fundamental Rights are justiciable in nature, meaning they are enforceable by the courts for their violation. Statement II: Directive Principles of State Policy are non-justiciable in nature, but they are considered fundamental in the governance of the country. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q17.With reference to the Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. The Fundamental Duties were part of the original Constitution adopted in 1950. 2. They were added upon the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee during the internal emergency. 3. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 added the duty related to providing opportunities for education to one's child or ward. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q18.Consider the following statements regarding the features of the Indian Constitution: 1. Fundamental Rights are meant to promote the ideal of political democracy. 2. Directive Principles of State Policy seek to establish a 'welfare state' in India. 3. The Supreme Court held that the Indian Constitution is founded on the balance between Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties. 4. Fundamental Duties, like Directive Principles, are non-justiciable in nature. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q19.With reference to the enforcement and limitations of Fundamental Rights, which of the statements given below is/are NOT correct? 1. An aggrieved person can directly approach the Supreme Court for the restoration of their Fundamental Rights. 2. Fundamental Rights are absolute and cannot be curtailed or repealed by the Parliament. 3. All Fundamental Rights are automatically suspended during the operation of a National Emergency.

Q20.Consider the following pairs: 1. Part III of the Constitution : Promoting social and economic democracy 2. Part IV of the Constitution : Imposing a moral obligation on the state 3. Part IV-A of the Constitution : Justiciable duties of the citizen How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q21.Consider the following statements regarding voting rights in India: 1. The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act. 2. The reduction in voting age came into effect in the year 1988. 3. The Constitution prohibits discrimination in granting the right to vote on the grounds of literacy and wealth. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q22.Statement I: The Indian Constitution, despite its federal character, provides for only a single citizenship. Statement II: In India, all citizens, irrespective of their state of birth or residence, enjoy the same set of political and civil rights throughout the country.

Q23.The introduction of universal adult franchise by the Constitution-makers was considered a bold and remarkable experiment. Consider the following contextual factors: 1. High levels of poverty and social inequality. 2. Overwhelming illiteracy in the population. 3. The vast size and huge population of the country. How many of the above factors are mentioned as reasons for this view?

Q24.With reference to the concept of citizenship in the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. India's model of single citizenship is contrasted with the dual citizenship system prevalent in countries like the USA. 2. The Indian Constitution provides for uniform political and civil rights for all its citizens throughout the country. 3. The goal of building a united and integrated Indian nation through single citizenship has been fully realised without any conflicts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q25.The Indian Constitution's adoption of universal adult franchise is credited with several benefits. Consider the following: 1. Making democracy broad-based. 2. Enhancing the self-respect and prestige of the common people. 3. Upholding the principle of equality. 4. Enabling minorities to protect their interests. How many of the above are mentioned as benefits of universal adult franchise?

Q26.Consider the following pairs: 1. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India : Guardian of public purse 2. Election Commission : Conducts elections to the office of President of India 3. Union Public Service Commission : Advises the governor on disciplinary matters How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q27.Consider the following two statements: Statement I: During an emergency, the Indian political system can transform from a federal structure to a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution. Statement II: The rationale behind the emergency provisions is to safeguard the sovereignty, unity, integrity, and security of the country.

Q28.The Constitution ensures the independence of bodies like the UPSC and CAG through various provisions. Based on the provided text, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a provision for ensuring their independence? 1. Security of tenure. 2. Expenses being charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. 3. Their removal requires a resolution passed by a special majority of Parliament.

Q29.How many of the grounds listed below are explicitly mentioned in the Constitution for the proclamation of different types of emergencies? 1. War 2. Failure of Constitutional machinery in the states 3. Threat to the financial stability of India 4. Armed rebellion

Q30.With reference to the Public Service Commissions, consider the following statements: 1. The Union Public Service Commission is responsible for conducting examinations for recruitment to all-India services. 2. A State Public Service Commission is mandated to advise the President of India on disciplinary matters concerning state services. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q31.Consider the following statements: Statement I: Several critics of the Indian Constitution argued that it was 'un-Gandhian' in nature. Statement II: A key reason cited for this criticism was the Constitution's failure to be built upon the foundation of village panchayats and district panchayats, which were central to the Gandhian vision.

Q32.Consider the following pairs: Critic of the Constitution : Comment 1. K. Hanumanthaiya : "...a slavish imitation of the west..." 2. Sir Ivor Jennings : "...a lawyers' paradise." 3. Lokanath Misra : "...music of an English band." 4. P.R. Deshmukh : "...far too ponderous like the ponderous tomes of a law manual." How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q33.With reference to the criticisms of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. Sir Ivor Jennings criticized the Constitution for being 'un-Indian' and not reflecting the spirit of India. 2. H.K. Maheswari observed that the draft Constitution would make people more litigious and that it was a 'lawyers' paradise'. 3. T. Prakasam attributed the absence of Gandhian ideals in the Constitution to Dr. Ambedkar's non-participation in the Gandhian movement. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q34.Consider the following Parts of the Indian Constitution: 1. Part IV-A 2. Part IX-A 3. Part IX-B 4. Part XIV-A How many of the Parts listed above were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?

Q35.Consider the following statements regarding the criticisms of the Indian Constitution: 1. The criticism of the Constitution being a 'slavish imitation of the west' and it being 'un-Gandhian' both suggest a perceived disconnect from India's indigenous political and social ethos. 2. The critique of the Constitution as a 'lawyers' paradise' was primarily concerned with its philosophical underpinnings rather than its structural complexity and language. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q36.Considering the dynamic nature of the Indian Constitution and the various amendment procedures discussed, analyze the following statements: 1. Amending provisions related to the election of the President requires a special majority of Parliament and ratification by at least half of the states. 2. The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, attempted to make constitutional amendments beyond the scope of judicial review, a move later curtailed by judicial interpretation. 3. The formation of new states and alteration of their boundaries under Article 3 falls under the purview of Article 368 and requires a special majority. 4. The 'basic structure' doctrine, established in the Kesavananda Bharati case, limits Parliament's constituent power under Article 368. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q37.Consider the following statements regarding the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 and related constitutional provisions: 1. The Act amends the Third Schedule of the Citizenship Act, 1955, reducing the residency requirement for naturalization from eleven to five years for specific communities. 2. The provisions of the Act do not apply to tribal areas included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution. 3. The Act is applicable to illegal migrants from six specified religious communities who entered India on or before December 31, 2014. 4. Part II of the Indian Constitution, which deals with citizenship, is explicitly exempt from amendment under Article 368 as it forms part of the 'basic structure'. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q38.Match the constitutional features (List-I) with their source constitution (List-II), considering the comparative context provided in recent analyses. List-I (Feature) 1. A system where the Head of State is a nominal executive, while the Prime Minister is the real executive, largely drawn from a system with a hereditary monarch. 2. A federation with a strong Centre, where residuary powers are vested in the central authority, contrasting with models where states retain such powers. 3. The procedure for amending the Constitution, which represents a synthesis of flexibility and rigidity. 4. The ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in the Preamble, inspired by a nation that established its First Republic in 1793. List-II (Source Constitution) A. Canadian Constitution B. French Constitution C. South African Constitution D. British Constitution

Q39.Considering the recent resurgence of coalition politics and the subsequent demands from regional parties, evaluate the following statements regarding the amendment procedures of the Indian Constitution: 1. A demand for altering the representation of states in Parliament, as might be debated during the upcoming delimitation exercise, would require an amendment under Article 368 with ratification by at least half of the states. 2. The creation of a new state, such as the long-standing demand for Bodoland, can be accomplished by the Parliament through a simple majority, and this change is explicitly kept outside the purview of Article 368. 3. A fundamental shift in fiscal federalism, such as moving a subject from the State List to the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule, can be achieved by the Parliament with only a special majority. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q40.Considering the ongoing debate on 'One Nation, One Election' (ONOE), analyze the following statements in the context of India's constitutional framework: 1. The implementation of ONOE, which would require synchronizing the terms of State Assemblies with the Lok Sabha, would necessitate a constitutional amendment under Article 368 that requires ratification by at least half of the states, reflecting the 'rigid' aspect of the Constitution concerning its federal structure. 2. The concern that ONOE could lead to more frequent imposition of President's Rule to align election cycles exemplifies the 'unitary bias' or 'centralising tendency' within India's quasi-federal system. 3. The historical disruption of simultaneous elections post-1967 due to premature dissolutions is a direct consequence of the principle of 'collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature', a core feature of India's parliamentary system. 4. Proponents of ONOE argue for a fixed tenure for legislatures, which fundamentally conflicts with the power to dissolve the lower house, a characteristic that distinguishes the Indian parliamentary system from the American presidential system. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q41.The 1975 National Emergency highlighted vulnerabilities in the constitutional framework, leading to significant changes via the 44th Amendment Act, 1978. Consider the following statements regarding the safeguards introduced by this amendment to constrain executive power: 1. It replaced the ground of 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' for proclaiming a National Emergency under Article 352. 2. It made the President's satisfaction in proclaiming an emergency completely immune from judicial review to ensure swift action. 3. It mandated that the President can proclaim an emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet. 4. It guaranteed that Fundamental Rights under Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a National Emergency. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q42.Considering the constitutional mandate for Panchayats to function as institutions of local self-government (73rd Amendment) and the recent RBI report on their finances, which of the following are identified as significant reasons for their continued high dependency on central and state grants? 1. A constitutional prohibition on Panchayats levying any form of direct tax. 2. A general aversion among elected representatives to impose local taxes due to concerns about political popularity. 3. A substantial increase in grants from the 14th and 15th Central Finance Commissions, reducing the incentive for local revenue collection. 4. The failure of the 97th Amendment Act to provide financial autonomy to cooperative societies, which are the primary economic engines of Panchayats. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q43.Considering the factors that have contributed to the 'elephantine size' of the Indian Constitution, as highlighted in recent analyses, evaluate the following statements: 1. The bulky Government of India Act of 1935 served as a major historical precedent and structural model. 2. The decision to have separate, detailed constitutions for each state and the Union significantly added to the overall length. 3. The inclusion of detailed administrative provisions, which are typically left to ordinary legislation in other countries, made the document more comprehensive. 4. The need to accommodate and provide for the vast geographical and cultural diversity of India was a key consideration. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q44.Considering the concept of 'Constitutional Morality' as a paramount reverence for the forms of the Constitution, evaluate the following statements: 1. The 'basic structure' doctrine, established in the Kesavananda Bharati case, serves as a judicial mechanism to uphold constitutional morality against legislative amendments that might alter its core principles. 2. The 'elephantine size' of the Indian Constitution, with its detailed provisions, can be interpreted as an effort to explicitly codify the tenets of constitutional morality, thereby reducing reliance on unwritten conventions. 3. The 42nd Amendment Act (1976), despite being called a 'Mini-Constitution', is often cited in judicial discourse as an event that challenged constitutional morality by concentrating power and undermining checks and balances. 4. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar's advocacy for constitutional morality suggested that its survival depends more on the spirit of adherence by the government and citizens than on the mere text of the Constitution itself. How many of the above statements are correct?