Question 1

With reference to the Election Commission of India, consider the following elections:
1. Elections to the office of the President of India
2. Elections to the Panchayats in the states
3. Elections to the state legislatures
4. Elections to the Municipalities in the states
The power of superintendence, direction and control of the Election Commission of India extends to
how many of the above elections?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Article 324 of the Constitution vests the Election Commission of India with the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, state legislatures, the office of President, and the office of Vice-President. Elections to panchayats and municipalities are conducted by separate State Election Commissions.

Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding the composition and functioning of the Election Commission of India:
Statement I: The Chief Election Commissioner and the other Election Commissioners have equal powers, and in case of a difference of opinion, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority.
Statement II: The conditions of service and tenure of office of the Election Commissioners and the Regional Commissioners are determined by the Parliament through legislation.

Accepted Answer

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Statement I is correct as the CEC and other ECs have equal powers and decide matters by majority. Statement II is incorrect because the Constitution specifies that the conditions of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners and the regional commissioners shall be determined by the President, not the Parliament.

Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding the removal of members of the Election Commission:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner holds office during the pleasure of the President.
2. An Election Commissioner can be removed from office on the same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.
3. A Regional Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is incorrect; the CEC is provided with security of tenure and does not hold office during the pleasure of the President. Statement 2 is incorrect; this specific removal procedure applies only to the Chief Election Commissioner, not the other Election Commissioners. Statement 3 is correct; other election commissioners and regional commissioners can only be removed on the recommendation of the CEC.

Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional provisions for the independence of the Election Commission:
1. The Constitution has prescribed the legal and administrative qualifications for the members of the Election Commission.
2. The Constitution has specified a fixed term of six years for the members of the Election Commission.
3. The Constitution has not debarred retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Only statement 3 is correct. The text explicitly mentions as a flaw that the Constitution has not debarred retiring commissioners from further appointments. Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect; the text notes that the Constitution has not prescribed qualifications and has not specified the term of the members, which are considered flaws in ensuring independence.

Question 5

With reference to the historical composition of the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements:
1. The Election Commission functioned as a single-member body from its inception in 1950 until 1993.
2. The President first appointed two additional election commissioners in 1989 to cope with the work related to the lowering of the voting age.
3. The Election Commission has been a permanent multi-member body consisting of three commissioners since October 1989.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because the commission became a multi-member body for the first time in 1989, not 1993. Statement 3 is incorrect because the two posts of election commissioners were abolished in January 1990, and the commission reverted to a single-member body before becoming a multi-member body again in October 1993.

Question 6

With reference to the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements:
1. The power of superintendence, direction and conduct of elections to the Parliament, state legislatures, and offices of the President and Vice-President is vested in the Commission.
2. The Constitution of India mandates that the commission must consist of a chief election commissioner and two other election commissioners.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. Statement 1 is correct as Article 324 vests the power of superintendence, direction, and conduct of these specific elections in the Election Commission. Statement 2 is incorrect because the text states that 'At present, the commission consists of a chief election commissioner and two election commissioners', not that the Constitution mandates this specific composition. The number of election commissioners (other than the Chief Election Commissioner) is determined by the President.

Question 7

Consider the following pairs:
1. Article 325 : Elections to be on the basis of adult suffrage.
2. Article 326 : No person to be ineligible for inclusion in electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex.
3. Article 327 : Power of Parliament to make provision with respect to elections to Legislatures.
4. Article 329 : Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is incorrect; Article 326 deals with adult suffrage, while Article 325 deals with no ineligibility for inclusion in electoral rolls on certain grounds. Pair 2 is incorrect for the same reason. Pair 3 is correct as Article 327 grants Parliament the power to make provisions for elections. Pair 4 is correct as Article 329 bars courts from interfering in electoral matters like delimitation. Therefore, only two pairs (3 and 4) are correctly matched.

Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework of elections in India:
1. A state legislature can make provisions with respect to elections to its legislature, but it cannot override a law made by the Parliament on the same matter.
2. The orders issued by the Delimitation Commission regarding the allotment of seats to constituencies can be challenged in the High Court.
3. The Supreme Court, in the Chandra Kumar case (1997), upheld the constitutional provision allowing for the establishment of election tribunals and the exclusion of the jurisdiction of all courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. Statement 1 is correct; state legislatures can only supplement parliamentary law on elections, not override it. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Constitution declares that the validity of any law relating to delimitation or allotment of seats cannot be questioned in any court. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Supreme Court in the Chandra Kumar case (1997) declared the provision for excluding the jurisdiction of all courts (except the Supreme Court's special leave appeal) via election tribunals as unconstitutional.

Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding the principles of the electoral system in India:
1. The Constitution has abolished the system of communal representation and separate electorates.
2. A citizen of India can be disqualified from being a voter on the ground of non-residence.
3. The Constitution guarantees the right to vote to every citizen who is 18 years of age, without any provision for disqualification.
Which of the statements given above are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

3 only. Statement 1 is correct; the Constitution provides for a single general electoral roll, abolishing separate electorates. Statement 2 is correct; the Constitution allows for disqualification from voting on grounds like non-residence, unsound mind, crime, or corrupt practices. Statement 3 is incorrect because while it establishes adult franchise, it explicitly allows for disqualification under laws made by the appropriate legislature. The question asks for the incorrect statement, which is statement 3.

Question 10

With respect to electoral disputes in India,
how many of the following statements are correct?
1. An election to the Parliament or a state legislature can be questioned only by an election petition.
2. Since 1966, election petitions are triable by High Courts alone.
3. An appeal from the decision of a High Court in an election petition lies with the Supreme Court alone.
4. The Constitution empowers the Parliament to establish a tribunal for the adjudication of election disputes, and several such tribunals are currently functional.

Accepted Answer

Only three statements. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 4 is incorrect; while Article 323B empowers the legislature to establish such tribunals, the text explicitly states that 'So far, no such tribunal has been established.' Therefore, only the first three statements are correct.

Question 11

With reference to the conduct of elections in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Returning Officer is responsible for the conduct of elections in a specific Parliamentary or assembly constituency.
2. The Election Commission of India can designate an officer of a local authority as the Returning Officer.
3. The District Election Officer appoints the Returning Officer for a constituency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. The Returning Officer (RO) is responsible for conducting elections in a constituency and can be an officer of a local authority. However, the RO is nominated or designated by the Election Commission of India in consultation with the State Government, not appointed by the District Election Officer.

Question 12

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) of a state supervises the election work in that state subject to the overall superintendence, direction and control of the Election Commission of India.
Statement II: The District Election Officer (DEO) supervises the election work of a district subject to the superintendence, direction and control of the Chief Electoral Officer.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are factually correct and describe the hierarchical chain of command in election supervision. Statement I describes the relationship between the ECI and the CEO. Statement II describes the relationship between the CEO and the DEO. While they are part of the same hierarchy, Statement II is a description of the next level of authority and does not explain the constitutional or legal basis for Statement I.

Question 13

Consider the following pairs:
Official : Primary Function
1. Electoral Registration Officer : Conduct of poll at a polling station
2. Returning Officer : Conduct of elections in a constituency
3. Presiding Officer : Preparation of electoral rolls
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only one pair. The Electoral Registration Officer is responsible for the preparation of electoral rolls. The Returning Officer is responsible for the conduct of elections in a constituency. The Presiding Officer conducts the poll at a polling station. Therefore, only the second pair is correctly matched.

Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of election officials:
1. The Chief Electoral Officer is nominated by the Election Commission of India without any consultation with the State Government.
2. The District Election Officer appoints the Presiding Officers for polling stations in the states.
3. In Union Territories, the Returning Officers appoint the Presiding Officers.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Chief Electoral Officer is nominated by the ECI 'in consultation with that State Government / Union Territory Administration'. Statements 2 and 3 are correct descriptions of the appointment process for Presiding Officers in states and Union Territories, respectively.

Question 15

How many of the officials listed below are appointed or nominated by the Election Commission of India (in consultation with the respective government/administration)?
1. Chief Electoral Officer
2. District Election Officer
3. Returning Officer
4. Presiding Officer

Accepted Answer

Only three. The Election Commission of India nominates or designates the Chief Electoral Officer, the District Election Officer, and the Returning Officer. The Presiding Officer, however, is appointed by the District Election Officer (or by the Returning Officer in Union Territories), not directly by the Election Commission.

Question 16

Consider the following pairs:
Observer Type : Primary Function
1. Police Observer : Monitors force deployment and law & order.
2. Awareness Observer : Checks the problem of 'Paid News'.
3. Micro Observer : Videographs major election campaign events.
4. Expenditure Observer : Ensures smooth conduct of elections at every stage.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is correct as Police Observers monitor force deployment and law and order. Pair 2 is correct as Awareness Observers monitor media-related aspects, including the problem of 'Paid News'. Pair 3 is incorrect; Assistant Expenditure Observers videograph campaign events, while Micro Observers observe poll day proceedings. Pair 4 is incorrect; General Observers ensure the smooth conduct of elections, while Expenditure Observers focus on candidate expenditure.

Question 17

With reference to the appointment of Election Observers by the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements:
1. Expenditure Observers are appointed from Central Government Services.
2. Police Observers are serving IPS officers.
3. Micro Observers are chosen from officials of the Central Government or Central PSUs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3. All three statements are correct. The text specifies that Expenditure Observers are from Central Government Services, Police Observers are IPS officers, and Micro Observers are chosen from Central Government or Central PSU officials. These appointments are part of the institutional design to ensure impartiality and expertise.

Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding Awareness Observers:
1. They were first deployed during the 16th Lok Sabha Elections in 2014.
2. A key function is to observe interventions aimed at increasing voter turnout.
3. They are primarily responsible for coordinating between Civil and Police administration to ensure free and fair elections.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

3 only. Statement 3 is incorrect. The coordination between Civil and Police administration is a function of Police Observers, not Awareness Observers. Statements 1 and 2 accurately describe the origin and function of Awareness Observers, which include overseeing voter awareness initiatives and monitoring efforts to increase voter participation.

Question 19

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Micro Observers are deployed to observe the poll proceedings on the poll day in selected critical polling stations.
Statement II: Micro Observers report directly to the General Observers about any vitiation of the poll proceedings in their allotted Polling Stations.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are correct. Micro Observers are deployed at critical polling stations for close monitoring. The institutional design requires them to report directly to the General Observer, which explains their role as a direct, on-the-ground feedback mechanism for the General Observer overseeing the constituency. Thus, Statement II correctly explains the hierarchical and functional purpose outlined in Statement I.

Question 20

With reference to the role of Micro Observers on poll day,
how many of the following activities are part of their duties?
1. They are chosen exclusively from Central Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
2. They observe the entire polling process, from the mock poll to the final sealing of EVMs.
3. They certify the availability of Basic Minimum Facilities (BMF) at the polling station before polling begins.
4. They are appointed for each Assembly segment to videograph campaign events.

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 2 and 3 are correct duties of a Micro Observer. Statement 1 is incorrect because they are chosen from 'Central Government / Central PSUs officials', not exclusively from PSUs. Statement 4 is incorrect as this is the duty of Assistant Expenditure Observers, not Micro Observers. Therefore, only two of the listed activities are correct.

Question 21

With reference to the election timeline in India, consider the following statements:
1. The formal process for elections starts with the announcement of the schedule by the Election Commission.
2. Candidates are permitted to withdraw from the contest within two days following the scrutiny of nominations.
3. The gap between the last session of a dissolved Lok Sabha and the convening of the new House cannot exceed six months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect; the formal election process begins with the issuance of the Notification, not the announcement of the schedule. The announcement triggers the Model Code of Conduct. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as the text specifies a two-day window for withdrawal after scrutiny and a maximum constitutional gap of six months between the old and new Lok Sabha sessions.

Question 22

With reference to the conduct of elections in India, consider the following functions:
1. Compiling the final list of elected members for the due constitution of the House.
2. Scrutinizing the nomination papers of candidates in a constituency.
3. Convening the first session of the newly elected Lok Sabha.
4. Declaring the election result for a particular constituency.
How many of the above functions are performed by the Returning Officer?

Accepted Answer

Only two. The Returning Officer is responsible for scrutinizing nomination papers (Function 2) and declaring the election result for the constituency (Function 4). Compiling the final list of all elected members is a function of the Election Commission (Function 1), and convening the Lok Sabha is the role of the President (Function 3). Therefore, only two of the listed functions are performed by the Returning Officer.

Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding the election timeline in India:
1. The Model Code of Conduct comes into effect from the date of issue of the formal election notification.
2. A candidate must make and subscribe the oath or affirmation on the same day they file their nomination papers.
3. Contesting candidates are provided a minimum of two weeks for political campaigning before the poll date.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Model Code of Conduct becomes effective immediately after the Election Commission announces the election schedule, which precedes the formal notification. Statement 2 is incorrect because a candidate can take the oath anytime after filing nomination but not later than the day previous to the date of scrutiny. Statement 3 is correct as candidates get at least two weeks for campaigning. The question asks for incorrect statements, which are 1 and 2.

Question 24

Statement I: The Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of candidates and political parties comes into effect as soon as the Election Commission announces the schedule of elections.
Statement II: The formal process for elections, including the filing of nominations, begins only after the issuance of the official Notification.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are factually correct descriptions of the election process. Statement I correctly notes that the Model Code of Conduct begins with the EC's announcement of the schedule. Statement II correctly identifies that the formal process, including nominations, starts later with the official notification. However, Statement II describes a subsequent, distinct step in the timeline and does not provide the reason or explanation for why Statement I occurs.

Question 25

Consider the following pairs regarding the administration of oath or affirmation to a candidate for an election:
1. Candidate in prison : Superintendent of the prison
2. Candidate outside India : Returning Officer of the constituency
3. Candidate confined to bed in a hospital : Medical practitioner attending on the candidate
4. Candidate filing nomination in person : Assistant Returning Officer
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only three pairs. Pair 1 is correct. Pair 3 is correct. Pair 4 is correct, as both the Returning Officer and Assistant Returning Officer are authorized. Pair 2 is incorrect; for a candidate outside India, the authority is the Indian Ambassador or High Commissioner, not the Returning Officer. Therefore, three pairs are correctly matched.

Question 26

Consider the following objectives with respect to the Model Code of Conduct (MCC):
1. To maintain the election campaign on healthy lines.
2. To avoid clashes and conflicts between political parties.
3. To ensure the ruling party does not use its official position for its campaign.
4. To provide a statutory framework for penalizing electoral malpractices.
How many of the above are intended objectives of the Model Code of Conduct as described in the passage?

Accepted Answer

Only three. The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of guidelines evolved by the Election Commission based on consensus among political parties, not a statutory law. Its objectives are to ensure a healthy and peaceful campaign and to maintain a level playing field by preventing the ruling party from misusing its position. Therefore, the first three statements are correct objectives, while the fourth is incorrect as the MCC is not a statutory framework.

Question 27

Consider the following statements regarding the timeline of an election campaign:
1. The official campaign period lasts for a minimum of two weeks from the drawing up of the list of nominated candidates.
2. Campaigning activities must officially cease 48 hours before the commencement of polling.
3. Validly nominated candidates are permitted to withdraw their candidature within two days after the scrutiny of nominations.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. Statement 2 is incorrect. The official campaign ends 48 hours before polling *closes*, not before it commences. Statement 1 is correct, as the official campaign lasts at least two weeks. Statement 3 is also correct, as candidates can withdraw within two days after nominations have been scrutinised.

Question 28

Statement I: The Election Commission appoints Observers to ensure that the election campaign is conducted fairly and that people are free to vote as they choose.
Statement II: The Model Code of Conduct, evolved by the Election Commission, prescribes guidelines for the ruling party to ensure a level playing field is maintained during the campaign.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are independently correct. The Election Commission does appoint Observers to ensure a fair campaign. The Model Code of Conduct does contain guidelines for the ruling party to ensure a level playing field. However, the role of Observers is broader than just enforcing the MCC on the ruling party; it encompasses overall fairness, expenditure checks, and ensuring voter freedom. Therefore, Statement II is a correct fact but not the complete or direct explanation for Statement I.

Question 29

With reference to the process of candidate nomination in an election, consider the following statements:
1. The scrutiny of nomination papers is conducted by Election Observers appointed by the Election Commission.
2. A nomination can be rejected by the Returning Officer after a summary hearing if it is not found to be in order.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. Statement 1 is incorrect. The scrutiny of nomination papers is conducted by the Returning Officers, not Election Observers. Statement 2 is correct. Returning Officers have the authority to scrutinise nominations and can reject them after a summary hearing if they are not in proper order.

Question 30

Consider the following functions related to election management:
1. Ensuring the campaign is conducted fairly.
2. Monitoring the expenditure of candidates and parties.
3. Ensuring people are free to vote as they choose.
4. Scrutinising and rejecting nomination papers.
How many of the above are explicitly mentioned as roles of Observers appointed by the Election Commission?

Accepted Answer

Only three. The Election Commission appoints Observers for several purposes. These include ensuring the campaign is conducted fairly (general Observers), keeping a check on election expenditure (Expenditure Observers), and ensuring people are free to vote as they choose. The scrutiny and rejection of nomination papers is a function performed by the Returning Officer, not the Observers. Therefore, only the first three functions are roles of Observers.

Question 31

With reference to the adoption of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in Indian elections, consider the following statements:
1. The use of EVMs began to increase significantly from 1998.
2. The first time EVMs were used for an entire Lok Sabha election was in 2004.
3. By 2003, all state elections and by-elections were being conducted using EVMs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3. All three statements are historically accurate regarding the timeline of EVM adoption in India. The Election Commission began increasing the use of EVMs in 1998, mandated their use for all state elections and by-elections in 2003, and conducted the 2004 Lok Sabha election entirely on EVMs.

Question 32

Consider the following statements regarding the setup of polling stations as per the Election Commission's guidelines.
How many of the statements given below are NOT correct?
1. Polling stations are typically established in public institutions like schools and community halls.
2. The aim is to have a polling station within five kilometres of every voter.
3. A single polling station should not cater to more than 1500 voters.
4. Each polling station must remain open for a minimum of eight hours on election day.

Accepted Answer

Only one. Only one statement is incorrect. The guideline is to ensure a polling station is within two kilometres of every voter, not five. The other statements are correct: polling stations are set up in public institutions, should not serve more than 1500 voters, and must be open for at least eight hours.

Question 33

Statement I: In the traditional voting system, after an elector's identity is verified against the electoral roll, they mark their choice on a ballot paper inside a screened compartment to ensure secrecy.
Statement II: The marked ballot paper is then folded and inserted into a common ballot box, which is kept in the full view of the Presiding Officer and polling agents.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements accurately describe distinct, sequential steps in the ballot paper voting process. Statement I describes the act of voting in secrecy. Statement II describes the subsequent act of depositing the ballot. Statement II is a consequence of Statement I, not an explanation for it. The explanation for voting in a screened compartment (Statement I) is to maintain the secrecy of the vote.

Question 34

Consider the following as potential advantages of using Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) over the traditional ballot paper system.
How many of the advantages listed below are mentioned in the provided context?
1. Reduction in the quantity of paper used, making the process eco-friendly.
2. Elimination of the possibility of invalid and doubtful votes.
3. Faster counting of votes compared to the conventional system.
4. Reduction in the cost of printing ballot papers.

Accepted Answer

All four. All four listed points are mentioned as advantages of EVMs. The text states that EVMs eliminate invalid votes, speed up counting, reduce paper usage making the process eco-friendly, and reduce printing costs as only one sheet of ballot paper is needed per polling station.

Question 35

With reference to the electoral process, consider the following statements:
1. The Election Commission is responsible for setting the languages in which ballot papers are printed.
2. The Returning Officer prepares the list of competing candidates after the nomination process is complete.
3. The Presiding Officer is responsible for ensuring that the ballot box remains in full view at the polling station.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3. All three statements correctly assign functions to the respective electoral authorities. The Election Commission determines the languages on the ballot paper. The Returning Officer finalizes the list of candidates. The Presiding Officer at the polling station is responsible for the security and proper placement of the ballot box.

Question 36

Consider the following statements regarding the role and access of media in the Indian electoral process:
1. Media is provided with special passes for election coverage.
2. Media access to polling stations is unconditional to ensure maximum transparency.
3. The primary goal of media involvement is to ensure transparency in the electoral process.
4. Media personnel are permitted inside counting halls during the vote count.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only three. Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct as the media is given special passes to enter polling stations and counting halls to enhance transparency. However, statement 2 is incorrect because this access is explicitly conditional upon 'maintaining the secrecy of the vote'.

Question 37

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The media is granted access to polling stations and counting halls during elections to cover the process.
Statement II: The facilitation of media coverage is aimed at enhancing electoral transparency, but it is subordinate to the principle of maintaining the secrecy of the vote.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are correct. Media access is provided to enhance transparency (Statement I). This access is not absolute and is qualified by the need to uphold the secrecy of the vote, which is a fundamental principle of elections. Therefore, Statement II provides the correct context and limitation for the policy described in Statement I.

Question 38

Consider the following statements regarding media access during elections:
1. A key function within the electoral management process is to provide facilities to the media for election coverage.
2. Media access is restricted to the counting halls only and does not extend to polling stations.
3. The overarching objective of allowing media coverage is to ensure the secrecy of the vote.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

2 and 3 only. Statement 2 is incorrect as media are given access to both polling stations and counting halls. Statement 3 is incorrect because the objective of media access is to bring transparency; maintaining the secrecy of the vote is a mandatory condition, not the objective itself. Statement 1 is correct as providing facilities is mentioned as part of the process.

Question 39

With reference to the role of media in the electoral process, consider the following statements:
1. Media is encouraged to cover elections primarily to increase voter turnout.
2. The provision of special passes to media personnel is a measure to ensure transparency in the electoral process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. The text explicitly states that media coverage is encouraged 'in order to bring as much transparency as possible to the electoral process.' It does not mention increasing voter turnout as a reason for this facilitation. Therefore, only the second statement is correct.

Question 40

As per the norms for ensuring transparency in the electoral process, media persons with special passes are given access to
which of the following locations?
1. Polling stations during the poll process
2. Counting halls during the counting of votes
3. The private residences of candidates
4. Strategy meetings of the Election Commission
How many of the above locations are explicitly mentioned as accessible?

Accepted Answer

Only two. The source text explicitly mentions that media persons are given special passes to enter 'polling stations to cover the poll process and the counting halls during the actual counting of votes.' Access to candidates' private residences or internal meetings of the Election Commission is not mentioned in this context.

Question 41

Consider the following statements regarding election petitions:
1. Only a candidate who contested the election can file an election petition.
2. An election petition is treated as an ordinary civil suit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Neither 1 nor 2. The source text specifies that 'Any elector or candidate can file an election petition', making statement 1 incorrect. It also explicitly states that an election petition is 'not an ordinary civil suit', making statement 2 incorrect. Therefore, neither statement is correct.

Question 42

With reference to Election Disputes & Petitions, consider the following statements:
1. Any elector within the constituency is eligible to file an election petition.
2. The trial of an election petition is conducted by the High Court of the state concerned.
3. If an election petition is upheld, the only legal consequence is the declaration of the runner-up as the winner.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

3 only. Statements 1 and 2 are correct as the text confirms that 'any elector or candidate' can file a petition and that they are 'tried by the High Court of the state'. Statement 3 is incorrect because a potential outcome mentioned is the 'restaging of the election in that constituency', not just declaring a different winner. The question asks for the incorrect statement.

Question 43

Statement I: An election petition concerning a state constituency is tried by the High Court of that state.
Statement II: An election petition is fundamentally different from an ordinary civil suit as it concerns the entire electorate of a constituency.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are factually correct based on the provided information. Statement I correctly identifies the judicial forum (High Court). Statement II correctly describes the legal nature of the petition. However, the nature of the petition as a constituency-wide contest (Statement II) does not logically explain why the High Court, specifically, is the designated forum for the trial (Statement I). The two are separate procedural facts.

Question 44

Consider the following statements regarding election disputes:
1. An election petition can be filed by any citizen of India, regardless of their voter status.
2. Election petitions are exclusively tried by the Supreme Court of India.
3. An election petition is treated as a contest in which the whole constituency is involved.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Statement 1 is incorrect; the right to file is limited to an 'elector or candidate'. Statement 2 is incorrect; petitions are tried by the 'High Court of the state involved'. Statement 3 is correct as the text states it is a 'contest in which the whole constituency is involved'. Therefore, only one statement is correct.

Question 45

Consider the following aspects related to election petitions in India:
1. The right to file is restricted to candidates who contested the election.
2. They are treated legally as a contest involving the entire constituency.
3. The primary court of trial for such petitions is the District Court.
4. A successful petition may result in a fresh election for the constituency.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect as electors can also file. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect as the High Court, not the District Court, tries these petitions. Statement 4 is correct as a restaging of the election is a possible outcome. Thus, two statements (2 and 4) are correct.

Question 46

Based on the provided election data, consider the following statements regarding trends in Indian General Elections:
1. The voter turnout percentage has never fallen below 50% since the Third General Election (1962).
2. The size of the electorate more than tripled between the First (1952) and the Eleventh (1996) General Elections.
3. The number of polling stations in the Seventeenth General Elections (2019) was more than five times the number in the First General Elections (1952).
4. The cost borne by the Election Commission for conducting elections has shown an uninterrupted increase in every successive election since 1957.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two statements. Statement 1 is correct (lowest since 1962 was 55.29% in 1971). Statement 2 is correct (Electorate in 1952 was 173.21 million; in 1996 it was 592.57 million, which is more than 173.21 * 3 = 519.63). Statement 3 is correct (Polling stations in 2019 were 1,036,295; in 1952 they were 196,084. 196,084 * 5 = 980,420, which is less than the 2019 number). Statement 4 is incorrect (the cost decreased from 1998 to 1999 in some data sources, but based on the provided table, it shows a consistent increase from 1957 onwards. Let's re-examine the data. 1957: 5.90, 1962: 7.81, ... 1996: 597.34, 1998: 626.40, 1999: 900.00. The data provided shows an uninterrupted increase. Let's re-evaluate the question statements. Ah, I see the error in my initial thought. Let's re-check statement 1. Turnout in 1957 was 45.74%, which is below 50%. The statement says 'since the Third General Election (1962)'. Turnout in 1962 was 55.42%. After that, it was always above 55%. So statement 1 is correct. Let's re-check statement 4. The cost from 1952 (10.45 cr) to 1957 (5.90 cr) decreased. The statement says 'since 1957'. From 1957 onwards, the cost has consistently increased in every election shown in the table. So statement 4 is also correct. Therefore, statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are all correct based on the provided data. The correct option should be 'd'. Let's make one statement definitively false to create a better question. Let's modify statement 1: 'The voter turnout percentage has never fallen below 55% since the Third General Election (1962).' Turnout in 1971 was 55.29%, and in 1999 it was 59.99%, but in 1971 it was 55.29%. Let's check again. 1962: 55.42%. 1967: 61.33%. 1971: 55.29%. This is below 55.42% but not below 55%. Let's re-read the table. 1971 turnout is 55.29%. So it did not fall below 55%. Let's check 1991: 61.0%. 1996: 57.94%. 1998: 61.97%. 1999: 59.99%. 2004: 57.86%. 2009: 58.40%. So statement 1 is correct. Let's make statement 4 false. 'The number of candidates contesting has consistently increased in every General Election.' This is false (e.g., it dropped from 1996 to 1998). Let's use that. New statements: 1. The voter turnout percentage has never fallen below 55% since the Third General Election (1962). (True). 2. The size of the electorate more than tripled between the First (1952) and the Eleventh (1996) General Elections. (True). 3. The number of candidates contesting has decreased in some successive elections. (True, e.g., 1996 to 1998). 4. The Ladakh constituency is larger in area than the next three largest constituencies combined. (False: Ladakh=173266. Barmer+Kutch+Arunachal West = 71601+41644+40572 = 153817. So Ladakh is larger, this is true). Let's try another false one. Statement 4: The cost of elections more than doubled between the Thirteenth (1999) and the Fourteenth (2004) elections. (False: 900 cr to 1100 cr is not doubling). Okay, let's use this set. Statements: 1. The voter turnout percentage has never fallen below 55% since the Third General Election (1962). (True). 2. The size of the electorate more than tripled between the First (1952) and the Eleventh (1996) General Elections. (True). 3. The cost of elections borne by the Election Commission decreased from the First (1952) to the Second (1957) General Election. (True). 4. The cost of elections more than doubled between the Thirteenth (1999) and the Fourteenth (2004) elections. (False). So, three statements are correct. This works.

Question 47

With reference to the performance of political parties in the first five General Elections (1952-1971),
which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

The Indian National Congress secured an absolute majority of seats in all of the first five General Elections.. In the Fourth General Election (1967), the Indian National Congress won 283 out of 520 elective seats. While it was the single largest party, this was not an absolute majority (which would require 261 seats). The statement that it secured an absolute majority in all five elections is therefore incorrect. The other statements are factually correct based on the data: Communist (16) > Jana Sangh (3) in 1952; Swatantra Party's peak was 44 seats in 1967; In 1962, Jana Sangh (14) < Communist (29).

Question 48

Consider the following two statements:
Statement I: The Sixth General Election of 1977 represents a watershed moment in India's electoral history, marking the first instance of a non-Congress party forming a government at the Centre.
Statement II: In the 1977 elections, the Indian National Congress won only 154 seats, while the Janata Party secured 298 seats, giving it a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are factually correct based on the provided data. Statement I makes a historical claim about the 1977 election being a turning point. Statement II provides the specific electoral data—the defeat of the Congress and the decisive victory of the Janata Party—that substantiates this historical claim. Therefore, Statement II is the direct and correct explanation for why the 1977 election is considered a watershed moment as described in Statement I.

Question 49

Consider the following pairs:
General Election : Single Largest Party
1. Ninth (1989) : Janata Dal
2. Eleventh (1996) : Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
3. Thirteenth (1999) : Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
4. Fourteenth (2004) : Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Let's examine each pair based on the data:
1. Ninth (1989): Congress won 197 seats, Janata Dal won 141. Congress was the single largest party. This pair is incorrectly matched.
2. Eleventh (1996): BJP won 161 seats, Congress won 140. BJP was the single largest party. This pair is correctly matched.
3. Thirteenth (1999): BJP won 182 seats, Congress won 114. BJP was the single largest party. This pair is correctly matched.
4. Fourteenth (2004): Congress won 145 seats, BJP won 138. Congress was the single largest party. This pair is incorrectly matched.
Therefore, only two pairs (2 and 3) are correctly matched.

Question 50

Consider the following statements regarding Indian parliamentary constituencies and election statistics:
1. The constituency of Ladakh has an area more than double that of the Barmer constituency.
2. The smallest constituency by area, Chandni Chowk, is located in the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
3. The voter turnout percentage in the Sixteenth General Election (2014) was the highest recorded in any general election until that point.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3. Statement 1 is correct: Ladakh's area is 173266.37 sq. km, while Barmer's is 71601.24 sq. km. 71601.24 * 2 = 143202.48, which is less than Ladakh's area. Statement 2 is correct: The table lists Chandni Chowk, NCT of Delhi, as the smallest constituency by area. Statement 3 is correct: The turnout in 2014 was 66.44%, which is higher than the turnout in all previous elections listed in the table, including the previous high of 64.1% in 1984. Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Question 51

Consider the following matters related to elections in India:
1. Allocation of seats in the House of the People
2. Registration of political parties
3. Delimitation of Parliamentary constituencies
4. Qualifications and disqualifications for membership of Parliament
5. Preparation of electoral rolls
How many of the above matters are dealt with under the Representation of the People Act, 1950?

Accepted Answer

Only three. The Representation of the People Act, 1950, deals with the allocation of seats, delimitation of constituencies, and the preparation of electoral rolls. The registration of political parties and the qualifications/disqualifications for membership are covered under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Therefore, three of the listed matters fall under the 1950 Act.

Question 52

With reference to the Representation of the People Act, 1951, consider the following statements:
1. It provides for the registration of electors for Parliamentary Constituencies.
2. It contains provisions relating to corrupt practices and other electoral offences.
3. It lays down the procedure for the presentation of election petitions directly to the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect because the registration of electors and preparation of electoral rolls are provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. Statement 3 is incorrect because election petitions are presented to the High Court, not the Supreme Court, although an appeal can later be made to the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is correct as the RPA, 1951 deals with corrupt practices and electoral offences.

Question 53

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Representation of the People Act, 1950, confers power on the President to delimit constituencies after consultation with the Election Commission.
Statement II: The Representation of the People Act, 1951, completely bars the jurisdiction of all courts in matters related to election disputes.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Statement I is correct; the RPA, 1950, empowers the President to delimit constituencies in consultation with the Election Commission. Statement II is incorrect; while the Act bars the jurisdiction of civil courts, it explicitly provides a mechanism for resolving election disputes through petitions to the High Court and subsequent appeals to the Supreme Court.

Question 54

Consider the following statements regarding electoral laws in India:
1. Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, an election petition is presented to the High Court for trial.
2. An appeal against the decision of the High Court in an election petition can be made to the Supreme Court.
3. Both the Representation of the People Act, 1950, and the Representation of the People Act, 1951, contain provisions that bar the jurisdiction of civil courts in electoral matters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3. All three statements are correct. The RPA, 1951 specifies that election petitions are to be presented to the High Court. It also provides for an appeal to the Supreme Court against the High Court's decision. Both the RPA, 1950 and RPA, 1951 include provisions that bar the jurisdiction of civil courts in matters they govern.

Question 55

Consider the following pairs:
Provision : Governing Act
1. Conduct of elections : Representation of the People Act, 1950
2. Delimitation of constituencies : Representation of the People Act, 1950
3. Registration of political parties : Representation of the People Act, 1951
4. Qualifications of voters : Representation of the People Act, 1951
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is incorrect: The conduct of elections is governed by the RPA, 1951. Pair 2 is correct: Delimitation of constituencies is a provision of the RPA, 1950. Pair 3 is correct: Registration of political parties is governed by the RPA, 1951. Pair 4 is incorrect: The qualifications for registration as a voter are provided for in the RPA, 1950. Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Question 56

Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional provisions for delimitation:
1. Article 82 of the Constitution provides for the readjustment of constituencies for the House of the People.
2. Article 330 provides for re-fixing the number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes in State Legislative Assemblies.
3. The basis for re-fixing reserved seats for SC/STs, as per the Delimitation Act, 2002, was the 2001 census.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 330 of the Constitution provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People (Lok Sabha), not in the State Legislative Assemblies. Reservation in State Legislative Assemblies is covered under Article 332. Statements 1 and 3 are correct as per the provided text.

Question 57

Consider the following functions:
1. To increase the total number of seats in the House of the People based on the 2001 census.
2. To redraw the boundaries of Assembly constituencies based on the 2001 census.
3. To re-fix the number of seats for Scheduled Tribes in State Legislative Assemblies based on the 2001 census.
4. To correct distortions in the sizes of electoral constituencies.
How many of the above were part of the mandate of the Delimitation Commission established under the Delimitation Act, 2002?

Accepted Answer

Only three. The Delimitation Commission under the 2002 Act was tasked with redrawing constituency boundaries (function 2), re-fixing SC/ST reserved seats based on the 2001 census (function 3), and correcting distortions in constituency sizes (function 4). However, it was explicitly mandated to do so *without affecting the total number of seats*, which remained based on the 1971 census. Therefore, function 1 is incorrect. This leaves three correct functions.

Question 58

With reference to the delimitation of constituencies in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Delimitation Commission is a permanent constitutional body established under Article 82.
2. The authority to determine the manner of delimitation is vested in the Parliament, which it exercises by enacting a law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Delimitation Commission is not a permanent or constitutional body. It is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament (like the Delimitation Act, 2002) whenever required. Statement 2 is correct. Articles 82 and 170 state that delimitation shall be done by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may, by law, determine.

Question 59

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The final orders of the Delimitation Commission, once published, apply to any bye-election that arises, even if the original general election for that seat was held before the orders were published.
Statement II: The delimitation of constituencies carried out by the Commission under the Delimitation Act, 2002, becomes effective for every general election to the House of the People or a State Legislative Assembly held after the final orders are published.

Accepted Answer

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.. Statement I is incorrect. The orders apply to a bye-election only if it arises from a general election that was itself held *after* the final orders were published. Statement II is correct as it accurately describes that the new delimitation applies to general elections held after the publication of the Commission's final orders.

Question 60

Consider the following statements regarding the Delimitation Act, 2002:
1. It was enacted to address the issue of uneven constituency sizes resulting from delimitation based on the 1971 census.
2. The Act mandated that the total number of seats in both Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies be readjusted based on the 2001 census population figures.
3. The Act provided for the re-fixing of the number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Delimitation Act, 2002, explicitly provided that the delimitation exercise would be conducted *without affecting the total number of seats* in the legislatures, which continued to be based on the 1971 census. Statements 1 and 3 are correct; the Act's purpose was to correct constituency size distortions and re-fix SC/ST reserved seats based on the 2001 census.

Question 61

Consider the following statements regarding various election-related legislations and orders in India:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, specifies certain offices of profit that do not disqualify a person from being a Member of Parliament.
2. The Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952, regulates matters connected with the elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President.
3. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 1976, includes provisions for the readjustment of representation of parliamentary constituencies.
4. The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, provides for the recognition of political parties.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

All four. All four statements accurately describe the functions of the respective acts and orders. The 1959 Act deals with offices of profit, the 1952 Act with Presidential/VP elections, the 1976 Act with SC/ST list readjustment and constituency representation, and the 1968 Order with symbol allotment and party recognition.

Question 62

Consider the following pairs:
Rule : Year of Enactment
1. Registration of Electors Rules : 1961
2. Conduct of Elections Rules : 1960
3. Prohibition of Simultaneous Membership Rules : 1950
4. Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules : 1974
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is incorrect; the Registration of Electors Rules were from 1960. Pair 2 is incorrect; the Conduct of Elections Rules were from 1961. Pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched with their respective years of enactment, 1950 and 1974.

Question 63

With reference to various election-related rules in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, provide for the preparation and publication of electoral rolls.
2. The Members of Lok Sabha (Declaration of Assets and Liabilities) Rules, 2004, lay down the procedure for disqualification on the ground of defection.
3. The Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, facilitate the conduct of fair and free elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Members of Lok Sabha (Declaration of Assets and Liabilities) Rules, 2004, deal with the declaration of assets and liabilities by members. The rules for disqualification on the ground of defection are the Members of Lok Sabha (Disqualification on Ground of Defection) Rules, 1985. Statements 1 and 3 are correct descriptions of their respective rules.

Question 64

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, provides the framework for the recognition of political parties and the allotment of election symbols.
Statement II: The Registration of Political Parties (Furnishing of Additional Particulars) Order, 1992, was promulgated to facilitate the conduct of fair and free elections to Parliament.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.. Statement I is correct as the 1968 Order governs party recognition and symbol allotment. Statement II is incorrect; its specific purpose is to require additional particulars from associations seeking registration as political parties, not the general conduct of fair elections. The general conduct of fair elections is facilitated by the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961.

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