Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding the origins and description of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
1. The framers of the Indian Constitution borrowed the idea of DPSP from the Irish Constitution, which in turn had copied it from the Spanish Constitution.
2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described the Directive Principles and the Fundamental Rights together as the 'Conscience of the Constitution'.
3. The concept of DPSP is similar to the 'Instrument of Instructions' enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct as the idea was borrowed from the Irish Constitution, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution. Statement 3 is correct as Dr. B.R. Ambedkar himself noted the resemblance of DPSPs to the 'Instrument of Instructions' from the 1935 Act. Statement 2 is incorrect; it was Granville Austin who described the Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights as the 'Conscience of the Constitution', while Dr. Ambedkar described the DPSPs as 'novel features'.

Question 2

Statement I: The Directive Principles of State Policy aim to establish economic and social democracy and embody the concept of a 'welfare state'.
Statement II: The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature and cannot be legally enforced by the courts for their violation.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are individually correct. Statement I accurately describes the socio-economic goals of the DPSP, aiming for a welfare state. Statement II correctly states their non-justiciable nature. However, Statement II (non-enforceability) is a feature of the DPSPs, not the reason for their aim to establish a welfare state. The two statements represent distinct, though related, characteristics of the DPSPs.

Question 3

With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), consider the following statements:
1. They are constitutional instructions to the State in legislative, executive, and administrative matters.
2. The term 'State' as used in Part IV has the same meaning as in Part III concerning Fundamental Rights.
3. They are fundamental in the governance of the country, but the government can be compelled by courts to implement them.
4. They seek to establish a police state, similar to the one that existed during the colonial era.
How many of the statements given above are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two statements. Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect because while DPSPs are fundamental in governance, the government cannot be compelled by courts to implement them as they are non-justiciable. Statement 4 is incorrect because DPSPs embody the concept of a 'welfare state', not a 'police state'. Statements 1 and 2 are correct descriptions of the nature and scope of DPSPs. Therefore, two statements are not correct.

Question 4

Consider the following pairs:
1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar : Conscience of the Constitution
2. Granville Austin : Novel features of the Constitution
3. Government of India Act, 1935 : Instrument of Instructions
4. Spanish Constitution : Original source of the DPSP concept copied by Ireland
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is incorrect: Dr. Ambedkar called DPSPs 'novel features'. Pair 2 is incorrect: Granville Austin called DPSPs and FRs the 'Conscience of the Constitution'. Pair 3 is correct: DPSPs are described as resembling the 'Instrument of Instructions' from the 1935 Act. Pair 4 is correct: The Irish Constitution, from which India borrowed the idea, had copied it from the Spanish Constitution. Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding the judicial status of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
1. Article 37 declares that it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
2. The non-justiciable nature of DPSPs means they are completely irrelevant for the judiciary when determining the constitutional validity of a law.
3. The Supreme Court may uphold a law as 'reasonable' in relation to Article 14 or 19 if it finds that the law seeks to give effect to a Directive Principle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct as Article 37 explicitly makes it the duty of the State to apply these principles. Statement 3 is also correct; the Supreme Court has held that a law implementing a DPSP can be considered reasonable, thus helping to save it from unconstitutionality under Articles 14 or 19. Statement 2 is incorrect because, as stated in the text and implied by statement 3, the courts do use DPSPs to examine the constitutionality of laws, making them judicially relevant despite being non-enforceable.

Question 6

Consider the following Directive Principles of State Policy:
1. To organise village panchayats.
2. To promote cottage industries in rural areas.
3. To prohibit the slaughter of cows and other milch cattle.
4. To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code.
How many of the above are classified as Gandhian Principles?

Accepted Answer

Only three. The classification of Directive Principles includes several based on Gandhian ideology. These are: 1. Organisation of village panchayats (Article 40), 2. Promotion of cottage industries (Article 43), and 3. Prohibition of the slaughter of cows (Article 48). Securing a uniform civil code (Article 44) is classified as a Liberal-Intellectual Principle. Therefore, three of the listed principles are Gandhian.

Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding the Socialistic Principles of the DPSP:
1. Article 39A directs the state to promote equal justice and provide free legal aid to the poor.
2. Securing a living wage for all workers under Article 43 is classified as a Socialistic Principle.
3. Raising the level of nutrition and improving public health under Article 47 is classified as a Gandhian Principle.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

3 only. Statement 1 is correct; Article 39A is a Socialistic Principle concerning free legal aid. Statement 2 is correct; Article 43, which aims to secure a living wage for workers, is listed under Socialistic Principles. Statement 3 is incorrect; while Article 47 is mentioned under both Socialistic and Gandhian principles in different contexts, the specific directive to 'raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health' is explicitly listed as a Socialistic Principle in the provided text. The Gandhian aspect of Article 47 relates to prohibiting intoxicating drinks.

Question 8

Consider the following pairs:
Article of the Constitution : Directive Principle
1. Article 48A : To protect and improve the environment
2. Article 43B : To promote cottage industries
3. Article 50 : To separate the judiciary from the executive
4. Article 46 : To promote educational interests of weaker sections
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only three pairs. Let's examine each pair: Pair 1 is correct; Article 48A deals with the protection of the environment. Pair 2 is incorrect; Article 43B deals with the promotion of cooperative societies, while Article 43 deals with promoting cottage industries. Pair 3 is correct; Article 50 directs the state to separate the judiciary from the executive. Pair 4 is correct; Article 46 directs the state to promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections. Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Question 9

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The Directive Principles of State Policy under the 'Liberal-Intellectual' category direct the state to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services.
Statement II: The Constitution of India itself contains an explicit classification of Directive Principles into socialistic, Gandhian, and liberal-intellectual categories.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Statement I is correct. Article 50, which directs the separation of the judiciary from the executive, is classified under the Liberal-Intellectual principles. Statement II is incorrect. The provided text explicitly states, 'The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles.' The classification into socialistic, Gandhian, and liberal-intellectual is based on their content and direction, not on a constitutional mandate.

Question 10

With reference to the framework of a 'democratic socialist state' envisaged by the Directive Principles, consider the following objectives:
1. Equitable distribution of material resources of the community.
2. Promotion of cottage industries on a co-operation basis.
3. Securing the participation of workers in the management of industries.
4. Organisation of agriculture on modern and scientific lines.
Which of the above objectives are guided by the Socialistic Principles?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. The Socialistic Principles lay down the framework for a democratic socialist state. Objective 1 (equitable distribution of resources) is from Article 39(b), a Socialistic Principle. Objective 3 (participation of workers in management) is from Article 43A, also a Socialistic Principle. Objective 2 (promotion of cottage industries) is from Article 43, which is a Gandhian Principle. Objective 4 (modernising agriculture) is from Article 48, which is a Liberal-Intellectual Principle. Therefore, only objectives 1 and 3 are guided by Socialistic Principles.

Question 11

Consider the following pairs with reference to amendments to the Directive Principles of State Policy:
1. 42nd Amendment Act : Promotion of co-operative societies
2. 44th Amendment Act : Minimise inequalities in income
3. 86th Amendment Act : Free legal aid to the poor
4. 97th Amendment Act : Protection of environment
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only one pair. Only the second pair is correctly matched. The 44th Amendment Act added the directive to minimise inequalities in income (Article 38). The 42nd Amendment added directives on free legal aid and environmental protection. The 86th Amendment modified the directive on education. The 97th Amendment added the directive on co-operative societies.

Question 12

How many of the following Directive Principles were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?
1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children.
2. To promote voluntary formation of co-operative societies.
3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.
4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life.

Accepted Answer

Only three. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles. The items listed as 1, 3, and 4 were among them. The promotion of co-operative societies (item 2) was added by the 97th Amendment Act of 2011.

Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding Directive Principles of State Policy:
1. Article 39A of the Constitution requires the State to provide free legal aid to the poor.
2. Article 43B, added by the 97th Amendment Act, requires the state to promote professional management of co-operative societies.
3. Article 38 was amended by the 42nd Amendment Act to require the State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

3 only. Statement 3 is incorrect. The directive to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38) was added by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978, not the 42nd Amendment Act. Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the provisions of the 42nd and 97th Amendments, respectively.

Question 14

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21A.
Statement II: Following the 86th Amendment Act, the subject-matter of Article 45 was changed to require the State to provide early childhood care and education for children until they complete the age of six years.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct?

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are correct. The 86th Amendment Act made elementary education (for ages 6-14) a Fundamental Right. This necessitated a change in the corresponding Directive Principle in Article 45. The amended Article 45 then directed the State to provide early childhood care and education for children below the age of six. Thus, Statement II is a direct consequence and explanation of the change brought by Statement I.

Question 15

Consider the following pairs:
Article : Provision
1. Article 43A : Participation of workers in management of industries
2. Article 48A : Protection of environment and wildlife
3. Article 39A : Minimise inequalities in income
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. Pair 1 and Pair 2 are correctly matched. Article 43A deals with the participation of workers in the management of industries, and Article 48A deals with the protection of the environment. Both were added by the 42nd Amendment. Pair 3 is incorrect; Article 39A provides for equal justice and free legal aid, while the directive to minimise inequalities in income is under Article 38.

Question 16

According to the provided text, the framers of the Constitution made the Directive Principles non-justiciable for
which of the following reasons?
1. The country lacked sufficient financial resources for their implementation.
2. The presence of vast diversity and backwardness was seen as an obstacle.
3. The newly independent state needed freedom to decide the priority and manner of their implementation.
4. They believed an awakened public opinion was a more effective sanction than court procedures.
How many of the above reasons are mentioned in the text?

Accepted Answer

All four. The text explicitly lists three reasons for making the DPSPs non-justiciable: insufficient financial resources, vast diversity and backwardness, and the need for the new state to be free from the burden of immediate implementation. It further adds that the makers believed in 'awakened public opinion rather than in court procedures as the ultimate sanction', making all four statements correct.

Question 17

With reference to the constitutional conflict pointed out by K. Santhanam regarding the Directive Principles, consider the following potential areas of conflict:
1. Between the Centre and the states.
2. Between the President and the Prime Minister.
3. Between the governor and the chief minister.
4. Between the Parliament and the Supreme Court.
How many of the above potential conflicts were highlighted by K. Santhanam according to the passage?

Accepted Answer

Only three. The text states that K. Santhanam pointed out that the Directives could lead to constitutional conflicts in three specific relationships: (a) between the Centre and the states, (b) between the President and the Prime Minister, and (c) between the governor and the chief minister. Conflict between the Parliament and the Supreme Court is not mentioned in this specific context.

Question 18

Consider the following pairs:
Critic : Remark on Directive Principles
1. K.T. Shah : A veritable dustbin of sentiments
2. Nasiruddin : New year's resolutions
3. T.T. Krishnamachari : A cheque on a bank, payable only when the resources of the bank permit
4. Sir Ivor Jennings : Pious aspirations
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. According to the text: K.T. Shah compared DPSPs with 'a cheque on a bank, payable only when the resources of the bank permit'. T.T. Krishnamachari described them as 'a veritable dustbin of sentiments'. Nasiruddin contended they are like 'new year's resolutions'. Sir Ivor Jennings thought they are 'only as pious aspirations'. Therefore, only pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched.

Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding the nature of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
1. The idea to divide individual rights into justiciable and non-justiciable categories was accepted by the Drafting Committee based on a recommendation from Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
2. The Constitution explicitly states that DPSPs are fundamental to the governance of the country.
3. The primary enforcement mechanism for DPSPs is judicial review by the courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect; the recommendation came from Sir B.N. Rau, the Constitutional Advisor. Statement 2 is correct; Article 37 explicitly makes these principles fundamental in the governance of the country. Statement 3 is incorrect; the text clearly states that DPSPs are non-justiciable and legally non-enforceable, with the real force being public opinion, not judicial review. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are not correct.

Question 20

Statement I: The Directive Principles of State Policy are non-justiciable in nature and are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.
Statement II: The Constitution lays down that the principles are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are factually correct as per Article 37 of the Constitution and the provided text. Statement I describes the non-enforceable nature of DPSPs. Statement II describes their fundamental importance in governance. However, Statement II does not explain *why* they are non-justiciable (the reasons for which are financial, diversity, etc.). Instead, it states their importance *despite* their non-justiciable character. Therefore, both are correct, but II is not the explanation for I.

Question 21

Consider the following legislative acts:
1. The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
2. The Factories Act, 1948
3. The Bonded Labour System Abolition Act, 1976
4. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
How many of the acts listed above were specifically enacted to protect the interests of the labour sections as per the provided text?

Accepted Answer

Only three. The text lists The Minimum Wages Act (1948), The Factories Act (1948), and The Bonded Labour System Abolition Act (1976) as measures enacted to protect the interests of labour sections. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, is mentioned separately as a measure to safeguard wildlife and forests, not labour interests. Therefore, three of the listed acts are correct.

Question 22

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar pointed out that the Directive Principles have great value because they lay down that the goal of Indian polity is 'economic democracy'.
Statement II: Granville Austin opined that the Directive Principles are intended as 'moral precepts for the authorities of the state'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Statement I is correct as the text attributes the view that DPSPs aim for 'economic democracy' to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. Statement II is incorrect because the text attributes the view that DPSPs are 'moral precepts for the authorities of the state' to Sir B.N. Rau, the constitutional advisor, not Granville Austin.

Question 23

Consider the following pairs:
1. NITI Aayog : Replaced the Planning Commission to take up planned development.
2. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 : Established a network for free and competent legal aid to the poor.
3. 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 : Provided constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
4. 102nd Amendment Act, 2018 : Conferred constitutional status on the National Commission for Women.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only three pairs. Pair 1 is correct as NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission in 2015. Pair 2 is correct as the Legal Services Authorities Act established a nationwide network for free legal aid. Pair 3 is correct as the 73rd Amendment gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj. Pair 4 is incorrect; the 102nd Amendment Act conferred constitutional status on the National Commission for Backward Classes, not the National Commission for Women. Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Question 24

Which one of the following statements regarding the role and significance of the Directive Principles of State Policy is NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

They confer legal rights and create legal remedies for the citizens.. The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature. The text explicitly states that they 'although confer no legal rights and create no legal remedies, are significant and useful'. The other statements accurately reflect the roles of the DPSPs as described in the source material.

Question 25

With reference to the measures taken for implementing Directive Principles for weaker sections, consider the following statements:
1. The Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955, was renamed as the Protection of Civil Rights Act in 1976.
2. The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 established the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes as a combined body.
3. The 103rd Amendment Act of 2019 facilitated reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is also correct. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 89th Amendment Act of 2003 bifurcated the combined National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes into two separate bodies: the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes. The combined commission was established earlier by the 65th Amendment Act of 1990.

Question 26

With reference to the constitutional developments following the Golaknath case (1967), consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court in the Golaknath case ruled that Parliament could amend Fundamental Rights to implement Directive Principles.
2. The 24th Amendment Act was enacted to declare that Parliament has the power to abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights.
3. The 25th Amendment Act inserted Article 31C, giving precedence to all Directive Principles over Articles 14, 19, and 31.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. Statement 1 is incorrect; the Supreme Court in the Golaknath case ruled that Parliament cannot take away or abridge any of the Fundamental Rights. Statement 2 is correct; the 24th Amendment Act was a direct reaction to the Golaknath judgment, affirming Parliament's power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights. Statement 3 is incorrect; the 25th Amendment Act, through Article 31C, gave precedence only to the socialistic Directive Principles specified in Article 39 (b) and (c), not all Directive Principles.

Question 27

Consider the following pairs regarding the characteristics of Fundamental Rights (FRs) and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs):
1. Nature of FRs : Positive, requiring the State to act.
2. Objective of DPSPs : Establishing social and economic democracy.
3. Sanctions for FRs : Moral and political.
4. Implementation of DPSPs : Automatically enforced without legislation.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only one pair. Pair 1 is incorrect; Fundamental Rights are generally negative as they prohibit the State from doing certain things. Pair 2 is correct; DPSPs aim to establish social and economic democracy. Pair 3 is incorrect; Fundamental Rights have legal sanctions, whereas DPSPs have moral and political sanctions. Pair 4 is incorrect; DPSPs are not automatically enforced and require legislation for their implementation.

Question 28

Consider the following statements regarding the role of the Supreme Court in the conflict between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles:
1. In the Champakam Dorairajan case, the Court established that Directive Principles would prevail over Fundamental Rights in case of a conflict.
2. In the Golaknath case, the Court ruled that Parliament lacks the power to amend Fundamental Rights for implementing Directive Principles.
3. In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Court invalidated a provision of Article 31C on the grounds that it violated the basic feature of judicial review.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. Statement 1 is not correct. In the Champakam Dorairajan case (1951), the Supreme Court ruled that in case of any conflict, Fundamental Rights would prevail over Directive Principles. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Golaknath case (1967) judgment stated that Parliament could not abridge Fundamental Rights. The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) judgment struck down the second provision of Article 31C because it sought to take away the power of judicial review, which was deemed a basic feature of the Constitution.

Question 29

Statement I: The 25th Amendment Act sought to give primacy to certain Directive Principles over certain Fundamental Rights.
Statement II: The Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case upheld the entirety of Article 31C, as inserted by the 25th Amendment Act, as constitutionally valid.

Accepted Answer

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Statement I is correct. The 25th Amendment Act inserted Article 31C, which stated that no law implementing the Directive Principles in Article 39(b) and (c) shall be void for contravening Articles 14, 19, or 31. Statement II is incorrect. In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court held the first provision of Article 31C to be valid but declared the second provision, which barred judicial review, as unconstitutional and invalid.

Question 30

As per the 25th Amendment Act (1971), which inserted Article 31C,
how many of the following provisions were included in the original text of the article?
1. A law implementing Directive Principles in Article 39(b) and (c) cannot be challenged for violating Article 14.
2. A law implementing Directive Principles in Article 39(b) and (c) cannot be challenged for violating Article 19.
3. A law implementing Directive Principles in Article 39(b) and (c) cannot be challenged for violating Article 31.
4. A law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy cannot be questioned in any court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Accepted Answer

All four. The 25th Amendment Act inserted Article 31C, which contained two key provisions. The first provision protected laws made to implement the socialistic Directive Principles in Article 39(b) and (c) from being challenged on grounds of contravention of Fundamental Rights under Articles 14, 19, and 31. The second provision stated that no law with a declaration for giving effect to such a policy could be questioned in court. Therefore, all four listed items were part of the original insertion of Article 31C.

Question 31

Consider the following pairs:
Article : Subject Matter
1. Article 40 : Organisation of village panchayats
2. Article 43A : Promotion of co-operative societies
3. Article 48 : Protection and improvement of environment
4. Article 50 : Separation of judiciary from executive
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is correct: Article 40 deals with the organisation of village panchayats. Pair 4 is correct: Article 50 deals with the separation of the judiciary from the executive. Pair 2 is incorrect: Article 43A deals with the participation of workers in the management of industries, while Article 43B deals with the promotion of co-operative societies. Pair 3 is incorrect: Article 48 deals with the organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry, while Article 48A deals with the protection and improvement of the environment.

Question 32

Consider the following statements regarding Directives contained in the Indian Constitution:
1. Article 351 imposes a duty on the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language.
2. The Constitution directs every state to provide facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage for all children within its territory.
3. Directives contained in Part XVII of the Constitution, similar to those in Part IV, are non-justiciable in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct as Article 351 explicitly states this duty for the Union. Statement 3 is also correct; the text mentions that directives outside Part IV are also non-justiciable. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 350-A specifies this provision for children belonging to 'linguistic minority groups', not for all children.

Question 33

As per the Directive Principles of State Policy and other Directives in the Constitution, it is a duty/endeavour of the State/Union to ensure:
1. Promotion of co-operative societies
2. Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years
3. Provision of adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage for linguistic minority groups
4. Separation of judiciary from executive
How many of the above are mentioned in the Constitution as Directives?

Accepted Answer

All four. All four items listed are directives mentioned in the Constitution. 1 is under Article 43B, 2 is under Article 45, 3 is under Article 350-A, and 4 is under Article 50. The question covers directives from both Part IV and other parts of the Constitution.

Question 34

With reference to the Directives contained in Parts other than Part IV of the Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. The claims of SCs and STs to services must be considered, subject to the maintenance of administrative efficiency.
2. The directive regarding instruction in the mother-tongue for linguistic minorities is contained in Part XVI of the Constitution.
3. The directive concerning the development of the Hindi language is justiciable in a court of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct; Article 335 links the claims of SCs/STs with the 'maintenance of efficiency of administration'. Statement 2 is incorrect; Article 350-A (mother-tongue instruction) is in Part XVII, not Part XVI. Statement 3 is incorrect; the text explicitly states that these directives (including Article 351 on Hindi) are non-justiciable. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

Question 35

Consider the following pairs regarding Directive Principles of State Policy:
Article : Subject Matter
1. Article 39A : Equal justice and free legal aid
2. Article 47 : Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry
3. Article 49 : Protection of monuments and places of national importance
4. Article 51 : Separation of judiciary from executive
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Pair 1 is correct: Article 39A provides for equal justice and free legal aid. Pair 3 is correct: Article 49 provides for the protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance. Pair 2 is incorrect: Article 47 relates to the duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and public health, while Article 48 deals with the organisation of agriculture. Pair 4 is incorrect: Article 51 relates to the promotion of international peace and security, while Article 50 deals with the separation of the judiciary from the executive.

Question 36

Consider the following statements regarding the introduction of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution:
Statement I: The need and necessity for incorporating Fundamental Duties were felt during the operation of the internal emergency (1975–1977).
Statement II: The ruling Congress party in 1976 declared that the non-inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the original Constitution was a historical mistake.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are factually correct based on the historical context. The internal emergency prompted the ruling party to consider the need for duties. The party then justified their inclusion by terming the original omission a 'historical mistake'. However, the party's declaration (Statement II) is a political justification, not the direct cause or explanation for the need felt during the emergency (Statement I).

Question 37

With reference to the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee and the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, consider the following statements:
1. The Committee was established to make recommendations on Fundamental Duties.
2. The 42nd Amendment Act added a new Part IVA, containing Article 51A, to the Constitution.
3. The 42nd Amendment Act incorporated all the recommendations made by the Swaran Singh Committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is correct as the Swaran Singh Committee was set up to recommend fundamental duties. Statement 2 is also correct as the 42nd Amendment added Part IVA and Article 51A. Statement 3 is incorrect because several recommendations of the committee, such as making the duty to pay taxes a fundamental duty and providing for penalties for non-compliance, were not accepted by the government.

Question 38

Consider the following recommendations made by the Swaran Singh Committee:
1. Parliament may provide for penalties for non-compliance with Fundamental Duties.
2. The duty to pay taxes should be a Fundamental Duty.
3. No law imposing a penalty for non-observance of duties shall be questioned in any court.
How many of the above recommendations were NOT incorporated into the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?

Accepted Answer

All three. The Congress Government did not accept certain recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. These included the provision for penalties for non-compliance, making the duty to pay taxes a fundamental duty, and barring judicial review of laws imposing such penalties. Therefore, all three listed recommendations were not incorporated.

Question 39

Which one of the following statements regarding the global context of Fundamental Duties is NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

The original Constitution of India contained only the Fundamental Duties and not the Fundamental Rights.. The original Indian Constitution contained Fundamental Rights but did not contain Fundamental Duties. The duties of the State were included as Directive Principles of State Policy. Fundamental Duties were added much later in 1976.

Question 40

Consider the following statements about the evolution of duties in the Indian Constitution:
1. The original Constitution incorporated the duties of the State in the form of Directive Principles of State Policy.
2. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, initially specified a code of ten fundamental duties.
3. An eleventh Fundamental Duty was added to the Constitution in the year 2002.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

All three. All three statements are correct. The original Constitution did contain the duties of the State as DPSP. The 42nd Amendment in 1976 added a list of ten Fundamental Duties. Subsequently, one more duty was added in 2002, bringing the total to eleven.

Question 41

Consider the following activities:
1. To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country's composite culture.
2. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
3. To vote in public elections to strengthen democracy.
4. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
How many of the above are listed as Fundamental Duties under Article 51A of the Indian Constitution?

Accepted Answer

Only three. Article 51A lists several Fundamental Duties for citizens. These include valuing and preserving the country's composite culture, safeguarding public property, and developing a scientific temper. However, the duty to vote in public elections, while a desirable civic action, is not explicitly mentioned as a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A.

Question 42

With reference to the Fundamental Duties enshrined in the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. The duty to provide opportunities for education to a child or ward applies to the age group of six to eighteen years.
2. The duty to protect and improve the natural environment explicitly includes forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife.
3. Renouncing practices derogatory to the dignity of women is part of the duty to promote harmony and common brotherhood.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. Statement 1 is incorrect; the 86th Amendment added the duty to provide educational opportunities for a child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years, not six to eighteen. Statement 2 is correct as Article 51A(g) explicitly mentions protecting the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife. Statement 3 is also correct as Article 51A(e) combines the promotion of harmony with renouncing practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Question 43

Which of the following are explicitly mentioned as Fundamental Duties in Article 51A of the Constitution?
1. To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom.
2. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
3. To pay taxes regularly and honestly.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
How many of the above are listed as Fundamental Duties?

Accepted Answer

Only three. Article 51A explicitly lists the duties to cherish ideals of the freedom struggle, to uphold India's sovereignty, and to defend the country. Paying taxes, while a legal obligation and a civic duty, is not enumerated in the list of Fundamental Duties under Article 51A.

Question 44

Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A:
Statement I: Article 51A of the Constitution of India mandates that every citizen must develop a scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
Statement II: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, added the duty concerning the development of scientific temper to Article 51A.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.. Statement I is correct as Article 51A(h) explicitly mentions the duty to develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform. Statement II is incorrect because the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, added the duty under clause (k), which is to provide opportunities for education to a child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years, not the duty related to scientific temper.

Question 45

With reference to Article 51A of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. The duty to provide opportunities for education to one's child was part of the original set of ten Fundamental Duties.
2. Abiding by the Constitution and respecting its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem is the first duty listed for every citizen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. Statement 1 is incorrect. The duty to provide opportunities for education was added as the eleventh duty by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. Statement 2 is correct. Article 51A(a) begins with the duty 'to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem'.

Question 46

Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of Fundamental Duties:
1. They are applicable to both citizens and foreigners.
2. They are non-justiciable in nature, similar to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
3. They essentially represent a codification of tasks integral to the Indian way of life.
4. The Parliament is constitutionally barred from enacting legislation to enforce them.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only, not foreigners. While they are non-justiciable, the Constitution allows the Parliament to enforce them by suitable legislation; it is not barred from doing so. Therefore, only two statements are correct.

Question 47

With reference to the legal status and judicial interpretation of Fundamental Duties, consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court has ruled that a law aimed at implementing a fundamental duty can be considered reasonable for the purpose of Article 14 and Article 19.
2. The Constitution itself provides for direct legal sanctions and penalties for the violation of any Fundamental Duty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. Statement 1 is correct. In a 1992 ruling, the Supreme Court held that in determining the constitutionality of a law, if it seeks to give effect to a fundamental duty, it may be considered a reasonable restriction on rights under Article 14 or 19. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Constitution does not provide for direct enforcement or legal sanction for their violation, though it empowers Parliament to make laws for their enforcement.

Question 48

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The inclusion of Fundamental Duties was justified by the government at the time as a means to establish a democratic balance by making citizens conscious of their duties alongside their rights.
Statement II: The post-emergency Janata Government, while reversing many constitutional changes made by the 42nd Amendment, chose not to remove the chapter on Fundamental Duties.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.. Statement I correctly reflects Prime Minister Indira Gandhi's justification for including Fundamental Duties. Statement II is also correct, as the Janata Government did not annul this chapter, indicating an eventual consensus on its necessity. However, Statement II is an outcome that shows subsequent political acceptance, not the original explanation or justification for Statement I. They are two independent historical facts that together show the evolution of consensus on the topic.

Question 49

Consider the following statements about Fundamental Duties:
1. Respecting the Constitution, National Flag, and National Anthem is classified as a moral duty.
2. Cherishing the noble ideals of the freedom struggle is considered a civic duty.
3. Like some Fundamental Rights, the Fundamental Duties also extend to foreigners residing in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3. All three statements are incorrect. Respecting the Constitution and national symbols is a civic duty. Cherishing the ideals of the freedom struggle is a moral precept. Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to foreigners. Therefore, all statements are not correct.

Question 50

Consider the following points regarding the significance and purpose of Fundamental Duties:
1. They serve as a warning against anti-national and antisocial activities.
2. They aim to promote a sense of discipline and commitment among citizens.
3. They were intended to have a sobering effect on unconstitutional agitations.
4. They assist the courts in examining the constitutional validity of a law.
How many of the above points are considered significant aspects of Fundamental Duties?

Accepted Answer

All four. All four points are cited as significant aspects of the Fundamental Duties. They act as a warning against anti-national activities, promote discipline, help courts determine the reasonableness of a law, and were historically justified by the then Law Minister as a measure to have a 'sobering effect' on agitations. Thus, all four points are correct.

Question 51

Consider the following criticisms levelled against the Fundamental Duties in Part IVA of the Constitution:
1. They are non-justiciable in character.
2. The list is not exhaustive and omits duties like paying taxes.
3. Their placement as an appendage to Part IV has reduced their significance.
4. Some duties are vague and difficult for a common person to understand.
How many of the criticisms listed above are mentioned in constitutional analysis?

Accepted Answer

All four. All four points are well-established criticisms of the Fundamental Duties. They are criticized for being non-enforceable (non-justiciable), incomplete (omitting duties like paying taxes), poorly placed in the Constitution (reducing their value), and containing ambiguous terms (like 'scientific temper').

Question 52

With reference to the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee concerning Fundamental Duties, consider the following statements:
1. The Committee recommended the inclusion of the duty to pay taxes.
2. The Committee suggested that the non-performance of Fundamental Duties should be met with penalty or punishment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 2. The Swaran Singh Committee, which was instrumental in the formulation of the Fundamental Duties, had indeed recommended making the duty to pay taxes a Fundamental Duty. It also suggested a mechanism for imposing penalties or punishment for the non-performance of these duties, although these specific recommendations were not fully incorporated.

Question 53

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Critics argue that the inclusion of Fundamental Duties as an appendage to Part IV of the Constitution has diminished their value and significance.
Statement II: The placement of Fundamental Duties after Part III (Fundamental Rights) would have put them on par with the rights, according to some critics.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.. Statement I correctly states a common criticism regarding the placement of Fundamental Duties. Statement II provides the underlying reason for this criticism: the belief that placing them after Part III (Fundamental Rights) would have accorded them a similar status and importance. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Question 54

Consider the following statements regarding the nature and enforceability of Fundamental Duties under Part IVA of the Constitution:
1. They are often described as a 'code of moral precepts' due to their non-justiciable character.
2. The Swaran Singh Committee had suggested that non-performance of these duties should be punishable.
3. The Constitution was amended to make family planning a Fundamental Duty as recommended by critics.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

3 only. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The duties are non-justiciable, hence considered moral precepts, and the Swaran Singh Committee did recommend penalties. Statement 3 is incorrect; while the omission of family planning is a point of criticism, it has not been added to the list of Fundamental Duties.

Question 55

Consider the following pairs regarding criticisms of Fundamental Duties:
1. Vague and Ambiguous : Phrases like 'composite culture' and 'scientific temper'
2. Superfluous Inclusion : Omission of duties like casting vote and paying taxes
3. Non-Exhaustive List : Belief that people would perform duties even without constitutional incorporation
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only one pair. Pair 1 is correctly matched as 'composite culture' and 'scientific temper' are cited as examples of vague terms. Pair 2 is incorrect; 'superfluous inclusion' refers to the idea that duties would be performed anyway, not the omission of other duties. Pair 3 is incorrect; 'non-exhaustive list' refers to the omission of duties like paying taxes, not the reason for superfluity. Therefore, only the first pair is correctly matched.

Question 56

Consider the following statements regarding the Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of the Citizens (1999):
1. The primary mandate of the committee was to recommend new legislation for the enforcement of all Fundamental Duties.
2. The committee concluded that there was a complete absence of legal provisions for the implementation of any Fundamental Duty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Neither 1 nor 2. The Verma Committee's role was not to recommend new laws but to identify the existence of existing legal provisions for the implementation of some of the Fundamental Duties. It found that several such provisions already existed, contradicting the idea of a complete absence of legal backing. Therefore, both statements are incorrect.

Question 57

As per the observations of the Verma Committee (1999),
how many of the Acts listed below contain legal provisions for the implementation of Fundamental Duties?
1. The Representation of People Act (1951)
2. The Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972
3. The Right to Education Act (2009)
4. The Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980

Accepted Answer

Only three. The Verma Committee identified The Representation of People Act (1951), The Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972, and The Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980 as containing provisions for implementing Fundamental Duties. The Right to Education Act (2009) is not mentioned in the provided list of the committee's observations. Therefore, only three of the listed Acts are correct.

Question 58

Consider the following pairs:
Act : Provision Identified by Verma Committee
1. Protection of Civil Rights Act (1955) : Provides for the declaration of a communal organisation as an unlawful association.
2. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (1967) : Provides for punishments for offences related to caste and religion.
3. Representation of People Act (1951) : Disqualification for promoting enmity between different sections of people.
4. Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act (1971) : Prevents disrespect to the Constitution of India.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is incorrect; the UAPA (1967) deals with declaring communal organisations unlawful. Pair 2 is incorrect; the Protection of Civil Rights Act (1955) deals with offences related to caste and religion. Pair 3 is correct; the RPA (1951) provides for disqualification for corrupt practices, including promoting enmity. Pair 4 is correct; the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act (1971) prevents disrespect to the Constitution, National Flag, and National Anthem. Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Question 59

Consider the following statements based on the legal provisions for the implementation of Fundamental Duties:
1. The Indian Penal Code (IPC) declares assertions prejudicial to national integration as punishable offences.
2. The Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980 prohibits trade in rare and endangered species.
3. The Protection of Civil Rights Act (1955) provides for punishments for offences related to caste and religion.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. Statement 1 is correct as the IPC makes imputations prejudicial to national integration punishable. Statement 3 is correct as the Protection of Civil Rights Act (1955) punishes offences related to caste and religion. Statement 2 is incorrect; the prohibition of trade in rare and endangered species is a provision of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972, not the Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980. The question asks for the incorrect statement.

Question 60

With reference to the Representation of People Act (1951), as identified by the Verma Committee, consider the following statements:
1. It provides for the disqualification of a legislator for soliciting votes on the ground of religion.
2. It provides for the disqualification of a legislator for promoting enmity between different sections of people on grounds of caste or language.
3. It provides for the disqualification of a legislator for showing disrespect to the National Anthem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Representation of People Act (1951) provides for the disqualification of members for indulging in corrupt practices, which include soliciting votes on the ground of religion and promoting enmity between different sections of people. Statement 3 is incorrect; disrespect to the National Anthem is addressed by the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act (1971), not the Representation of People Act (1951).

Question 61

The recent discourse on socialism highlights its deep roots in India's constitutional framework, particularly through the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). Considering the classification of DPSPs, how many of the principles listed below are categorized as 'Socialistic' and align with the goal of establishing a democratic socialist state?

1. Article 39(b): To secure the equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good.
2. Article 43A: To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.
3. Article 44: To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country.
4. Article 40: To organise village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority.

Accepted Answer

Only two. Based on the provided text, DPSPs are classified into Socialistic, Gandhian, and Liberal-Intellectual. 
1. Article 39(b) is explicitly listed as a Socialistic principle, aiming for equitable distribution of resources.
2. Article 43A, promoting worker participation in management, is also a Socialistic principle.
3. Article 44 (Uniform Civil Code) is classified as a Liberal-Intellectual principle.
4. Article 40 (Village Panchayats) is a Gandhian principle.
Therefore, only two of the listed principles are Socialistic.

Question 62

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment in the Champakam Dorairajan case (1951) and its immediate legislative aftermath:
1. The Supreme Court ruled that in any conflict, Directive Principles of State Policy would prevail over Fundamental Rights.
2. The judgment established that Parliament lacked the power to amend Fundamental Rights through constitutional amendment acts.
3. The case arose from a government order that cited Article 46 (a DPSP) to justify reservations in educational institutions.
4. The First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951, introduced Article 15(4) to enable the state to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect; the Supreme Court ruled that Fundamental Rights would prevail over DPSPs. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court explicitly held that Fundamental Rights could be amended by Parliament. Statements 3 and 4 are correct. The case was a challenge to the Madras government's Communal GO which was based on Article 46, and the parliamentary response was the First Amendment Act, which added Article 15(4) to constitutionally validate such reservations.

Directive Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties

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