Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding the specification of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs):
1. The President specifies the SCs and STs for a state after mandatory consultation with the governor of that state.
2. Once the President issues a notification specifying the SCs or STs, any subsequent modification, including inclusion or exclusion, can only be done by the Parliament.
3. The lists of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are uniform across all states and union territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is correct as the President must consult the concerned state governor. Statement 2 is correct because only Parliament has the authority to amend the presidential notification list. Statement 3 is incorrect; the lists of SCs and STs are specific to each state and union territory and vary accordingly.

Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding the identification of certain classes under the Constitution:
1. The Constitution of India explicitly defines the criteria for a community to be identified as Anglo-Indian.
2. The Constitution itself contains the lists of castes and tribes that are to be designated as Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
3. The power to specify the socially and educationally backward classes in relation to a state was granted to the President by the 102nd Amendment Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. Statement 2 is not correct. The Constitution does not specify the castes or tribes to be called SCs or STs; it empowers the President to do so. Statement 1 is correct as the Constitution defines an Anglo-Indian. Statement 3 is also correct as the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 empowered the President to specify the socially and educationally backward classes.

Question 3

Part XVI of the Constitution contains special provisions for certain classes. As per the text, these provisions relate to:
1. Reservation in Legislatures
2. Educational Grants
3. Appointment of Commissions of Investigation
4. Reservation in the higher judiciary
How many of the above are mentioned as special provisions in the provided context?

Accepted Answer

Only three. The text explicitly mentions Reservation in Legislatures, Educational Grants, and Appointment of Commissions of Investigation as special provisions under Part XVI. Reservation in the higher judiciary is not mentioned in the list of provisions provided in the source text.

Question 4

Statement I: The 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 empowered the President to specify the socially and educationally backward classes in relation to a state, after consultation with the governor.
Statement II: Any inclusion in or exclusion from the Central List of socially and educationally backward classes can only be done by the Parliament, not by a subsequent Presidential notification.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I.. Both statements are individually correct. Statement I describes the initial process of specification of socially and educationally backward classes by the President. Statement II describes the subsequent process of modification of the Central List, which is a power vested exclusively in the Parliament. Statement II outlines a separate, subsequent procedural step and does not explain why or how the President was empowered as stated in Statement I.

Question 5

Consider the following actions related to the specification of special classes:
1. Exclusion of a tribe from the list of Scheduled Tribes for a state through a Presidential notification, subsequent to the initial one.
2. Inclusion of a caste in the list of Scheduled Castes for a state through an Act of Parliament.
3. Exclusion of a class from the Central List of socially and educationally backward classes through an Act of Parliament.
4. Initial specification of the list of Scheduled Castes for a state by the President after consulting the Governor.
How many of the above actions are constitutionally valid?

Accepted Answer

Only three. Action 1 is invalid; only Parliament can modify the list after the initial Presidential notification. Action 2 is valid as Parliament has the power to include or exclude any caste or tribe from the list. Action 3 is valid as Parliament can modify the Central List of backward classes. Action 4 is valid as this is the prescribed procedure for the initial specification of the list by the President. Therefore, three of the actions are valid.

Question 6

Consider the following pairs:
1. Article 330: Representation of the Anglo-Indian community in the House of the People
2. Article 332: Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the legislative assemblies of the states
3. Article 333: Representation of the Anglo-Indian community in the legislative assemblies of the states
4. Article 338: National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is incorrect; Article 330 deals with the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the House of the People (Lok Sabha), while Article 331 deals with Anglo-Indian representation. Pair 4 is incorrect; Article 338 is for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, while Article 338A is for the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes. Pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched as per their constitutional subjects. Therefore, only two pairs are correct.

Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding the representation of the Anglo-Indian community in legislatures:
1. The President of India is empowered to nominate up to two members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha.
2. The Governor of a state can nominate one member of the Anglo-Indian community to the state legislative assembly.
3. The nomination by the President or Governor is mandatory, irrespective of whether the community is adequately represented or not.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is correct as the President can nominate two members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is also correct as the Governor can nominate one member to the state legislative assembly. Statement 3 is incorrect because the power of nomination is discretionary and can only be exercised if the President or Governor is of the opinion that the community is not adequately represented.

Question 8

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The constitutional provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, and the representation of the Anglo-Indian community by nomination, were originally intended to be temporary.
Statement II: The 95th Amendment Act of 2009 extended these provisions as the social and educational reasons that weighed with the Constituent Assembly for their inclusion were considered to have not ceased to exist.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct?

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.. Statement I is correct; these provisions were originally set to last for ten years (up to 1960). Statement II is also correct and provides the specific reason why these temporary provisions were extended by the 95th Amendment Act. The rationale for the extension was that the conditions that necessitated these provisions in the first place were still prevalent. Thus, Statement II correctly explains the context for the continuation of the provisions mentioned in Statement I.

Question 9

With reference to the special provisions for certain communities in the Indian Constitution,
which of the following statements is/are NOT correct?
1. The 95th Amendment Act of 2009 extended the period of reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
2. The 95th Amendment Act of 2009 also extended the special provisions related to the reservation of posts for the Anglo-Indian community in services like railways and customs.
3. Article 334 of the Constitution specifies the period after which reservations and special representation shall cease to have effect.

Accepted Answer

2 only. Statement 2 is not correct. The special provisions for the Anglo-Indian community in certain services (railway, customs, postal, telegraph) and special educational grants were allowed to continue on a progressive diminution basis and came to an end in 1960. The 95th Amendment Act extended only the provisions for legislative representation, not the service-related benefits which had already lapsed. Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Question 10

According to the constitutional framework,
how many of the special provisions for the Anglo-Indian community listed below ceased to have effect in 1960?
1. Reservation of posts in the Union's railway services.
2. Special grants for their educational institutions.
3. Nomination of one member to a state legislative assembly.
4. Representation in the House of the People by nomination.

Accepted Answer

Only two. The provisions for reservation of posts for Anglo-Indians in services like railways, customs, postal, and telegraph, and the provision for special educational grants, both came to an end in 1960. The provisions for legislative representation through nomination to the Lok Sabha and state assemblies were extended multiple times and did not cease in 1960. Therefore, only two of the listed provisions ceased to have effect in 1960.

Question 11

With reference to the 82nd Amendment Act of 2000, consider the following statements:
1. It provides for the relaxation of qualifying marks in examinations for SCs and STs.
2. The provisions are applicable for reservation in matters of promotion.
3. The scope of these provisions is limited to the public services of the Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. The 82nd Amendment Act of 2000 allows for relaxation in qualifying marks or lowering of evaluation standards for SCs and STs in matters of promotion to public services of both the Centre and the states. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect as it excludes state services.

Question 12

Which of the following statements regarding the claims of SCs and STs in public services is NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

Such relaxation in standards is applicable only for initial appointments, not for promotions.. The 82nd Amendment Act of 2000 specifically provides for relaxation in qualifying marks or lowering of evaluation standards for reservation in matters of promotion to public services, not just for initial appointments.

Question 13

Consider the following provisions related to SC/ST claims in public services:
1. Consideration of claims for appointments to the public services of the Centre.
2. Consideration of claims for appointments to the public services of the states.
3. Provision for lowering standards of evaluation for reservation in promotions.
4. The mandate to uphold administrative efficiency is subordinate to reservation claims.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only three. The claims of SCs and STs are considered for appointments in both Central and State services, and the 82nd Amendment allows for lowering evaluation standards in promotions. Thus, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. However, this must be done without sacrificing administrative efficiency, making the fourth statement incorrect.

Question 14

Statement I: The claims of the SCs and STs shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State.
Statement II: The 82nd Amendment Act of 2000 provides for making any provision in favour of the SCs and STs for relaxation in qualifying marks for reservation in matters of promotion.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I.. Both statements are factually correct. Statement I states the general principle of considering SC/ST claims while maintaining administrative efficiency. Statement II describes a specific provision enabled by the 82nd Amendment Act regarding promotions. Statement II is a specific enabling provision and not a direct explanation of the general principle mentioned in Statement I; it is better understood as a qualification or a specific application related to it.

Question 15

Consider the following pairs:
1. SC/ST Claims in public services : Applicable only to the services of the Centre
2. 82nd Amendment Act of 2000 : Provision for relaxation in qualifying marks in promotions
3. Administrative Efficiency : A principle that can be disregarded for reservation
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only one pair. Pair 1 is incorrect because claims are considered for both Centre and State services. Pair 2 is correct as the 82nd Amendment allows for relaxation in marks for promotions. Pair 3 is incorrect because claims are to be considered *without sacrificing* administrative efficiency. Therefore, only one pair is correctly matched.

Question 16

Consider the following pairs:
1. National Commission for STs : Article 338
2. 89th Amendment Act, 2003 : Bifurcation of combined SC/ST commission
3. 102nd Amendment Act, 2018 : Constitutional status for NCBC
4. National Commission for BCs : Article 338-B
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only three pairs. Pair 1 is incorrect; the National Commission for STs is established under Article 338-A, while Article 338 pertains to the National Commission for SCs. Pair 2 is correct as the 89th Amendment Act of 2003 bifurcated the combined commission. Pair 3 is correct as the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 granted constitutional status to the NCBC. Pair 4 is correct as the 102nd Amendment inserted Article 338-B for the NCBC. Therefore, three pairs are correctly matched.

Question 17

With reference to the National Commissions for SCs, STs, and BCs, consider the following statements:
1. The National Commission for SCs is also required to investigate matters concerning constitutional safeguards for the Anglo-Indian community.
2. The reports of all three National Commissions are submitted directly to the Parliament for consideration.
3. The National Commission for Backward Classes was a statutory body before it was granted constitutional status.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct; the NCSC has the additional responsibility for the Anglo-Indian community. Statement 2 is incorrect; the commissions submit their reports to the President, who then places them before the Parliament. Statement 3 is correct; the NCBC was set up by an Act of Parliament in 1993, making it a statutory body, before receiving constitutional status in 2018.

Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of National Commissions:
1. The Constitution originally provided for two separate commissions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
2. The 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 conferred constitutional status on the National Commission for Backward Classes.
3. The National Commission for Backward Classes was first established in 1993 through a constitutional amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is not correct; the Constitution initially provided for a combined National Commission for SCs and STs, which was later bifurcated. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is not correct; the NCBC was established in 1993 by an Act of Parliament, not a constitutional amendment. The question asks for the incorrect statements.

Question 19

Statement I: The National Commissions for SCs, STs, and BCs are constitutionally required to submit their reports on the working of constitutional safeguards directly to the Parliament.
Statement II: The President is mandated to place the reports of these commissions, along with an action taken memorandum, before the Parliament.

Accepted Answer

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Statement I is incorrect. The National Commissions for SCs (Art 338), STs (Art 338-A), and BCs (Art 338-B) are required to report to the President, not directly to the Parliament. Statement II is correct. The President is constitutionally obligated to cause all such reports to be laid before each House of Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations.

Question 20

Consider the following functions:
1. Investigating all matters relating to the constitutional safeguards for the Anglo-Indian community.
2. Investigating all matters relating to the constitutional safeguards for the socially and educationally backward classes.
3. Investigating all matters relating to the constitutional safeguards for the Scheduled Tribes.
How many of the above are functions assigned to National Commissions established under Articles 338, 338-A, or 338-B of the Constitution?

Accepted Answer

All three. All three functions are assigned to specific National Commissions. Function 1 is discharged by the National Commission for SCs (under Article 338). Function 2 is the mandate of the National Commission for BCs (under Article 338-B). Function 3 is the core mandate of the National Commission for STs (under Article 338-A).

Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding the commissions for Backward Classes:

Statement I: The recommendations of the first Backward Classes Commission under Kaka Kalelkar were not acted upon as they were considered too vague and impractical.

Statement II: The recommendations of the second Backward Classes Commission under B.P. Mandal were implemented by the government in the same year the report was submitted.

Accepted Answer

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Statement I is correct as the report of the Kaka Kalelkar commission was not acted upon due to its recommendations being considered vague. Statement II is incorrect because the Mandal Commission submitted its report in 1980, but its recommendations were implemented only in 1990, a decade later.

Question 22

Consider the following pairs:
1. First Commission for Scheduled Areas : U.N. Dhebar
2. Second Commission for Scheduled Areas : Dilip Singh Bhuria
3. First Backward Classes Commission : B.P. Mandal
4. Second Backward Classes Commission : Kaka Kalelkar
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Pair 1 is correct; the first commission for scheduled areas (1960) was headed by U.N. Dhebar. Pair 2 is correct; the second commission (2002) was headed by Dilip Singh Bhuria. Pair 3 is incorrect; the first Backward Classes Commission was headed by Kaka Kalelkar. Pair 4 is incorrect; the second Backward Classes Commission was headed by B.P. Mandal. Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Question 23

With reference to the administration of scheduled areas, consider the following statements:
1. The President is mandated to appoint a commission to report on the administration of scheduled areas exactly every ten years.
2. The executive power of the Centre is limited to appointing the commission and does not extend to directing states on the welfare schemes for Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

Both 1 and 2. Statement 1 is not correct because the President can appoint such a commission at any time, although it was compulsory to do so after ten years of the Constitution's commencement, not 'exactly every ten years'. Statement 2 is not correct because the executive power of the Centre explicitly extends to giving directions to a state regarding the execution of schemes for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes.

Question 24

With reference to the commission appointed to investigate the conditions of backward classes, consider the following statements:
1. The President is required to appoint such a commission compulsorily after a fixed period from the commencement of the Constitution.
2. The report of the commission, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on it, is to be placed before the Parliament.
3. The first such commission was appointed in 1979 under the chairmanship of B.P. Mandal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. Statement 1 is incorrect; the President 'may' appoint such a commission, it is not a compulsory appointment at a fixed interval. Statement 2 is correct as the report and the action taken memorandum are placed before Parliament. Statement 3 is incorrect; the first commission was appointed in 1953 under Kaka Kalelkar, while the one under B.P. Mandal was the second commission appointed in 1979.

Question 25

Consider the following statements regarding commissions appointed by the President:
1. The first commission to report on the administration of scheduled areas was appointed in 1960.
2. The second Backward Classes Commission was appointed in 1979 under B.P. Mandal.
3. The recommendations of the first Backward Classes Commission were implemented in 1990.
4. The second commission on the administration of scheduled areas was headed by U.N. Dhebar.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two statements. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect; it was the recommendations of the second Backward Classes Commission that were implemented in 1990. Statement 4 is incorrect; the second commission on scheduled areas was headed by Dilip Singh Bhuria, while the first was headed by U.N. Dhebar. Thus, only two statements are correct.

Question 26

Consider the following statements regarding the extension of reservation periods mentioned in the Constitution:
1. The 8th Amendment Act of 1959 was the first to extend the initial reservation period.
2. The 95th Amendment Act of 2009 extended the reservation period up to the year 2020.
3. Each subsequent amendment for this purpose extended the period by twenty years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is correct as the 8th Amendment extended the initial ten-year period to twenty years. Statement 2 is correct as the 95th Amendment extended the period to seventy years, which corresponds to the year 2020. Statement 3 is incorrect; the text indicates that the extensions were consistently for ten-year increments (e.g., from twenty to thirty years, thirty to forty years, etc.), not twenty.

Question 27

Statement I: The initial lists of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are specified by Presidential Orders.
Statement II: Once notified, these lists of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes can only be modified by a subsequent Presidential Order.

Accepted Answer

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.. Statement I is correct. The text mentions the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, and the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950, which are Presidential orders. Statement II is incorrect because the text explicitly states that 'The Parliament modified the Presidential orders by enacting the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act'. This indicates that Parliament, not just the President, has the power to modify the lists.

Question 28

Consider the following pairs:
Constitutional Amendment Act : Total period of reservation extended
1. 45th Amendment Act : Forty years
2. 62nd Amendment Act : Sixty years
3. 79th Amendment Act : Seventy years
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only one pair. Pair 1 is correctly matched: The 45th Amendment Act of 1980 extended the reservation period to forty years. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The 62nd Amendment Act of 1989 extended the period to fifty years, not sixty. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: The 79th Amendment Act of 1999 extended the period to sixty years, not seventy. Therefore, only one pair is correctly matched.

Question 29

Consider the following statements:
1. The 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 inserted a new Article 342A in the Constitution.
2. As per Clause 10 of Article 338, any reference to the Scheduled Castes in that article shall also include the Anglo-Indian community.
3. The first Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order was promulgated for the Union Territories in 1951.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

3 only. Statement 1 is correct as the text explicitly mentions it. Statement 2 is also correct as it directly quotes Clause 10 of Article 338. Statement 3 is incorrect; the text mentions 'the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950' as the primary order, while 'the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) (Union Territories) Order, 1951' was a separate order for Union Territories. Thus, the first ST order was in 1950, not 1951 for UTs. The question asks for the incorrect statement.

Question 30

With reference to the constitutional and legal framework for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, consider the following:
1. The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950
2. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 1956
3. The 102nd Amendment Act, 2018
4. The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) (Union Territories) Order, 1951
How many of the above are explicitly mentioned in the provided text as instruments for specifying or modifying lists of these communities or related constitutional provisions?

Accepted Answer

All four. The provided text explicitly mentions all four instruments. It refers to 'the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950' and 'the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) (Union Territories) Order, 1951'. It also states that Parliament enacted 'the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act in 1956'. Finally, it mentions that 'The 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 inserted a new Article 342A'. Therefore, all four are mentioned.

Question 31

Consider the following statements comparing the constitutional rationale and procedures for special provisions for certain classes (Part XVI) and certain states (Part XXI):

1. The power to specify Scheduled Castes for a state rests with the President, but subsequent modifications require Parliamentary action, which is procedurally similar to how special provisions for states like Nagaland (Art 371A) were incorporated through Constitutional Amendments by Parliament.
2. Both Part XVI (for SCs/STs) and specific articles in Part XXI (like Art 371D for Andhra/Telangana and Art 371J for Karnataka) explicitly provide for reservation in government services and posts to promote equitable opportunities.
3. While the Constitution provides a specific definition for the Anglo-Indian community, it does not define the specific castes or tribes to be included as SCs or STs, nor does it define the specific tribal customs protected under articles like 371A for Nagaland.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

All three. All three statements are correct. Statement 1 correctly compares the ultimate authority of Parliament in both cases: amending the SC/ST list and enacting constitutional amendments for state-specific provisions. Statement 2 is correct as Part XVI mentions reservation in services, and Articles 371D and 371J explicitly provide for reservations in public employment for specific regions within states. Statement 3 accurately contrasts the explicit definition of Anglo-Indians with the procedural, non-definitional approach for SCs/STs and the protection of unspecified Naga customary laws.

Question 32

With reference to the recent 22nd Foundation Day of the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST), consider the following statements regarding the constitutional evolution of national commissions in India:
1. The 89th Amendment Act of 2003 established the NCST by adding Article 338-A, separating it from the previously combined commission for SCs and STs.
2. The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was granted constitutional status through the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018, which inserted Article 338-B.
3. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) is constitutionally mandated to investigate matters relating to safeguards for both Scheduled Castes and the Anglo-Indian community.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

All three. All three statements are correct. Statement 1 is accurate as the 89th Amendment Act, 2003, bifurcated the combined National Commission for SCs and STs, creating the NCST under the new Article 338-A. Statement 2 is also correct; the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 conferred constitutional status on the NCBC by inserting Article 338-B. Statement 3 is correct as the static content explicitly mentions that the NCSC is required to discharge similar functions with regard to the Anglo-Indian Community as it does for the SCs.

Question 33

Consider the following statements regarding the evolution and responsibilities of National Commissions in India:
1. The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 established the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) as two separate constitutional bodies.
2. Until the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2018, the NCSC was also responsible for investigating matters concerning the Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
3. The NCSC is constitutionally mandated to discharge functions with regard to the Anglo-Indian Community, similar to its functions for the Scheduled Castes.
4. The original Constitution, as adopted in 1950, provided for a multi-member National Commission for SCs and STs under Article 338.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only three. Statement 4 is incorrect. The original Constitution provided for the appointment of a Special Officer under Article 338, not a multi-member commission. The 65th Amendment Act of 1990 replaced the Special Officer with a multi-member National Commission for SCs and STs. Statement 1 is correct as the 89th Amendment Act, 2003, bifurcated the combined commission. Statement 2 is correct as the NCSC was relieved of its responsibility for OBCs by the 102nd Amendment Act, 2018, which created the NCBC. Statement 3 is also correct as per the static text provided.

Question 34

Considering the recent implementation of SC sub-categorisation by Telangana and the underlying constitutional framework, evaluate the following statements:

1. The power to amend the Presidential list of Scheduled Castes, as established by the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, rests exclusively with the Parliament.
2. The Supreme Court in the E.V. Chinnaiah (2004) case ruled that Scheduled Castes form a homogeneous group, thereby prohibiting states from sub-classifying them.
3. The State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh (2024) judgment allows states to sub-classify SCs for the purpose of equitable benefit distribution, effectively 'tinkering' with the Presidential list under Article 341.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct; Article 341(2) explicitly states that Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes. The static content mentions Parliament modifying these orders. Statement 2 is correct; the E.V. Chinnaiah case held that SCs are a single homogeneous group and states cannot sub-classify. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the Davinder Singh case did allow states to sub-classify, it clarified that this action does NOT amount to 'tinkering' with the Presidential list itself. The list of castes remains unchanged; only the distribution of benefits among them is rationalised. Therefore, only two statements are correct.

Question 35

Consider the following statements regarding reservation policies in India:
1. The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023, provides for horizontal reservation for women, including a sub-quota within the seats already reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
2. Unlike the specification of Scheduled Castes through Presidential Orders, the identification of Other Backward Classes for political reservation in the Lok Sabha is constitutionally mandated through Article 342A.
3. The periodic extension of political reservation for Scheduled Castes, as done by amendments like the 95th Amendment Act, is a procedural requirement that will also apply to the women's reservation introduced by the 106th Amendment Act.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct. The reservation for women cuts across all categories (general, SC, ST), making it horizontal. The Act explicitly provides for one-third of seats reserved for SCs/STs to be further reserved for women of those communities. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Article 342A (inserted by the 102nd Amendment) deals with the power to specify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs), the Constitution does not provide for their political reservation in the Lok Sabha or state assemblies, unlike the provisions for SCs and STs. Statement 3 is correct. The 106th Amendment Act inserts Article 334A, which states the reservation will be for 15 years and can be extended by Parliament. This is analogous to Article 334, which contains the sunset clause for SC/ST political reservation that has been periodically extended by various amendments, such as the 95th Amendment Act.

Question 36

Considering the Supreme Court's 2025 ruling in 'Tanvi Behl v. Shrey Goel' and the provided static information on reservation policies, how many of the following statements are correct?

1. The Supreme Court's emphasis on a single 'Domicile of India' under Article 5 is in direct conflict with the Parliament's power to amend state-specific lists of Scheduled Castes via Presidential Orders.
2. While the 95th Amendment Act legislatively extended reservations for certain classes, the judiciary's ruling on domicile quotas demonstrates its power to judicially review and limit the scope of reservations not explicitly sanctioned for a specific purpose.
3. The constitutional justification for reservations under the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, is based on historical social disadvantage, which is fundamentally different from the 'state investment' rationale previously accepted for residence-based MBBS reservations in the 'Dr. Pradeep Jain' case.

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect; these are not in conflict. The concept of a single domicile for citizenship and fundamental rights (like practicing a profession) is distinct from the constitutionally sanctioned mechanism of creating state-specific lists for affirmative action for SC/STs. Statement 2 is correct; it accurately contrasts the legislative power of Parliament to extend existing reservations (like through the 95th Amendment) with the judicial power to strike down new forms of reservation (like domicile in PG medical) that violate fundamental rights like Article 14. Statement 3 is correct; it correctly distinguishes between the two different rationales. SC/ST reservations are based on addressing historical injustice, whereas the now-overturned logic for MBBS domicile quotas was based on the state's financial contribution to medical colleges.

Question 37

Consider the following statements regarding the legal and constitutional framework for the protection of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in India:
1. The power to specify which castes or tribes are to be considered SCs or STs is vested in the President, and any subsequent modification to these lists requires a Parliamentary Act.
2. The Supreme Court's 2024 ruling on the SC/ST Act, 1989, established that any insult directed at an SC/ST member automatically constitutes an offense, regardless of the perpetrator's intent.
3. The 2018 Amendment to the SC/ST Act was a legislative response to a Supreme Court judgment, and it reinstated the provision for immediate arrest without a preliminary inquiry.
4. As per Article 338(10) of the Constitution, for the purposes of that article, any reference to Scheduled Castes is also construed as a reference to the Anglo-Indian community.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only three. Statement 1 is correct; the President issues the initial orders (e.g., Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950), which can then be modified by Parliament. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 2024 SC ruling clarified the opposite, stating that the insult must be specifically linked to the victim's caste identity with an 'intent to humiliate' based on caste. Statement 3 is correct; the 2018 amendment was enacted to nullify the effects of the Subhash Kashinath Mahajan judgment, which had introduced requirements for a preliminary inquiry. Statement 4 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the static content regarding Article 338(10). Therefore, three statements (1, 3, and 4) are correct.

Question 38

Consider the following statements regarding the legal recognition of social practices and communities in India:

1. The inclusion of a community in the list of Scheduled Castes is determined by a Presidential Order, which can only be modified by an Act of Parliament, not by asserting a local custom.
2. The validity of a 'Sapinda' marriage, otherwise prohibited under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, is contingent upon proving an established custom that has obtained the 'force of law' within a specific community or family.
3. While Parliament has the power to amend the lists of Scheduled Castes through legislation, it has delegated the authority to courts to determine the validity of customs that act as exceptions to personal laws like the Hindu Marriage Act.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

All three. Statement 1 is correct; the static text mentions Presidential Orders (1950) and subsequent Parliamentary amendments (1956, 1976) for modifying SC/ST lists. Statement 2 is correct; the current affairs text explicitly states that Section 5(v) of the HMA allows for an exception based on established custom. Statement 3 is also correct. Parliament enacts laws like the HMA, which includes provisions for customs. The interpretation and validation of whether a specific practice meets the legal definition of 'custom' (as defined in Section 3(a) of the HMA) is a judicial function, as demonstrated by the Delhi High Court's role in the Neetu Grover case. Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Question 39

Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional status of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in light of the Supreme Court's judgment in Chinthada Anand v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2026):

1. The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, as interpreted by the judiciary, restricts SC status to individuals professing Hinduism, Sikhism, or Buddhism.
2. Unlike for SCs, an individual from a Scheduled Tribe who converts to Christianity or Islam does not automatically lose their ST status, provided they maintain tribal customs and community acceptance.
3. The power to include or exclude any caste or tribe from the Presidential lists of SCs and STs is vested exclusively with the Parliament.
4. The Chinthada Anand judgment established that for reconversion, mere renunciation of the new faith is sufficient to regain SC status.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only three. Statement 1 is correct as the SC judgment reaffirms that SC status is limited to Hindus, Sikhs, and Buddhists. Statement 2 is correct as the judgment explicitly contrasts the rules for SCs with those for STs, where conversion does not automatically lead to loss of status. Statement 3 is correct as the static text clarifies that while the President issues the initial notification, only Parliament can amend the lists. Statement 4 is incorrect; the judgment requires 'strict, unimpeachable proof' for reconversion, including community acceptance, not just mere renunciation.

Question 40

With reference to the special provisions for certain classes and the recent Supreme Court ruling on religious conversion, which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

The 102nd Amendment Act, 2018, which gave constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes, also empowered the President to specify the list of SEBCs, which can be amended by a subsequent Presidential notification after consulting the Governor.. Statement (c) is incorrect. While the 102nd Amendment Act empowered the President to specify the list of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs), the static text explicitly states that 'any inclusion in or exclusion from the Central List...can be done only by the Parliament and not by a subsequent Presidential notification'. The other statements are correct reflections of the constitutional provisions and the judicial interpretation provided in the texts.

Question 41

Consider the following pairs regarding constitutional provisions and their implications, especially in the context of the Chinthada Anand (2026) judgment:

1. Article 341 : Power of Parliament to specify SCs by notification.
2. 102nd Amendment Act, 2018 : Empowered the President to specify the list of SEBCs for a state after consulting the Governor.
3. Soosai v. Union of India (1985) : Denied SC status to Dalit Christians, citing the need for empirical data on continued discrimination.
4. Chinthada Anand (2026) : Ruled that ST status is lost upon conversion to a non-tribal religion, similar to SCs.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. Only two pairs are correctly matched. Pair 1 is incorrect: Article 341 empowers the President, not Parliament, to specify the list by notification. Parliament has the power to modify it. Pair 2 is correct as stated in the static text. Pair 3 is correct as mentioned in the current affairs summary. Pair 4 is incorrect: The judgment made a clear distinction, stating that ST status is NOT automatically lost upon conversion, unlike SC status. Therefore, only pairs 2 and 3 are correct.

Question 42

With reference to the special provisions for certain classes and the Supreme Court's ruling in *Chinthada Anand v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2026)*, consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, as interpreted by the judiciary, restricts SC status to specific religions, a limitation that does not apply to Scheduled Tribes.
2. Following the *Chinthada Anand* ruling, an individual from a Scheduled Tribe who converts to Islam automatically loses their ST status, similar to a Scheduled Caste individual.
3. The power to include or exclude a community from the list of Scheduled Castes rests solely with the President through subsequent notifications, without parliamentary intervention.
4. The 102nd Amendment Act, 2018, which empowered the President to specify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes, operates independently of the religious criteria established for Scheduled Caste status.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only two. Statement 1 is correct. The SC ruling in *Chinthada Anand* highlights that SC status is tied to professing Hinduism, Sikhism, or Buddhism, as per the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950. The ruling explicitly contrasts this with ST status, where no such religious bar exists. Statement 2 is incorrect. The ruling clarified that ST status is not automatically lost upon conversion if tribal customs and identity are maintained. Statement 3 is incorrect. The static content clearly states that while the President issues the initial notification, any subsequent inclusion or exclusion can only be done by Parliament. Statement 4 is correct. The 102nd Amendment deals with the identification of OBCs, a separate constitutional process under Article 342A, and does not affect the criteria for SCs under Article 341. Therefore, only two statements (1 and 4) are correct.

Question 43

In the context of specifying Scheduled Castes and the implications of religious conversion, which of the following statements is NOT correct?

1. The President is empowered to specify the Scheduled Castes for a particular state, but this is done after consulting the Governor of that state.
2. The Supreme Court's judgment in *Chinthada Anand v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2026)* clarified that the loss of SC status upon conversion also leads to the forfeiture of protection under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989.
3. The Constitution of India, in Part XVI, explicitly enumerates the specific castes that are to be included in the Scheduled Castes list for each state and union territory.
4. Any modification to the Presidential list of Scheduled Castes, such as the inclusion of a new caste or exclusion of an existing one, can only be enacted by the Parliament.

Accepted Answer

Statement 3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The provided static content explicitly states, 'The Constitution does not specify the castes or tribes which are to be called the SCs or the STs. It leaves to the President the power to specify as to what castes or tribes in each state and union territory are to be treated as the SCs and STs.' The other statements are correct based on the provided static and current affairs texts. Statement 1 reflects the constitutional procedure. Statement 2 reflects a key consequence outlined in the *Chinthada Anand* judgment. Statement 4 correctly describes the exclusive power of Parliament to amend the SC lists.

Question 44

Match List-I (Provision / Judgment) with List-II (Core Subject Matter) in the context of special provisions for certain classes and recent judicial interpretations.

List-I
A. Article 341
B. 102nd Amendment Act, 2018
C. *Chinthada Anand v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2026)*
D. *Soosai v. Union of India (1985)*

List-II
1. Empowered the President to specify the central list of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs).
2. Denied SC status to Dalit Christians, citing a lack of empirical data on continued discrimination post-conversion.
3. Pertains to the President's power to specify the Scheduled Castes for states and union territories.
4. Ruled that SC status is immediately and completely lost upon conversion to religions like Christianity or Islam.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Accepted Answer

A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2. The correct matching is as follows: A-3: Article 341 of the Constitution grants the President the power to specify the Scheduled Castes. B-1: The 102nd Amendment Act, 2018, inserted Article 342A, empowering the President to specify the SEBCs for the central list. C-4: The recent judgment in *Chinthada Anand v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2026)* established the principle of immediate loss of SC status upon conversion to non-prescribed religions. D-2: The historical case of *Soosai v. Union of India (1985)* is a landmark judgment that denied SC benefits to Dalit Christians, arguing a lack of evidence that the disabilities of their original caste persisted after conversion. Thus, the correct code is A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2.

Special Provisions Relating to Certain Classes

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