Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding the establishment of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):
1. The CVC was established on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.
2. From its inception in 1964, the CVC was a statutory body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. The Central Vigilance Commission was indeed established based on the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee. However, it was initially created by an executive resolution of the Central government in 1964 and was not a statutory body. It was granted statutory status much later, in 2003, by an act of Parliament.

Question 2

With reference to the functions of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), consider the following activities:
1. Receiving complaints from whistle-blowers under the “Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers Resolution”.
2. Acting on disclosures regarding misuse of office made by whistle-blowers.
3. Taking punitive action against complainants who make motivated or vexatious complaints.
How many of the above activities fall within the mandate of the CVC?

Accepted Answer

All three. The CVC is designated as the agency to receive and act on complaints from whistle-blowers under the PIDPI Resolution. The Commission is also explicitly empowered to take action against complainants who file motivated or vexatious complaints. Therefore, all three activities are part of its mandate.

Question 3

Statement I: The Central Vigilance Commission is vested with all the powers of a civil court.
Statement II: The proceedings of the Central Vigilance Commission have a judicial character.

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.. The CVC is granted the powers of a civil court to enable it to conduct its inquiries effectively. The fact that its proceedings are considered to have a judicial character is the underlying reason for it being vested with such powers, as this character necessitates the ability to summon, examine, and compel evidence akin to a court.

Question 4

Consider the following statements about the working of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):
1. The advice tendered by the CVC is binding on the Central government and its authorities.
2. If the Central government disagrees with the CVC's advice, it must communicate the reasons in writing to the CVC.
3. The CVC submits its annual performance report directly to the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect because the CVC's advice is recommendatory; the government can choose not to follow it. Statement 3 is incorrect because the CVC submits its annual report to the President, who then places it before each House of Parliament. Statement 2 is correct as the government must provide written reasons for disagreeing with the CVC's advice.

Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):
1. It is a constitutional body.
2. It is conceived to be free of control from any executive authority.
3. It has the power to regulate its own procedure.
4. It presents its annual performance report to the President.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only three. The CVC is a statutory body, not a constitutional one, making statement 1 incorrect. It is designed to be independent of executive control (statement 2 is correct), has the power to regulate its own procedures (statement 3 is correct), and submits its annual report to the President (statement 4 is correct). Thus, three statements are correct.

Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of the Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC):
1. The CVC is appointed by the President of India.
2. The recommendation for the appointment is made by a committee headed by the Union Minister of Home Affairs.
3. The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha is a member of the recommendation committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. The Central Vigilance Commissioner is appointed by the President. The recommendation committee consists of the Prime Minister as its head, the Union Minister of Home Affairs, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. Therefore, the committee is headed by the Prime Minister, not the Home Minister.

Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding the tenure and removal of the Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC):
1. The CVC holds office for a term of four years or until the age of sixty-five, whichever is earlier.
2. After their tenure, they are not eligible for any further employment under the Central or a state government.
3. The President can remove the CVC on the ground of proved misbehaviour only after the Supreme Court upholds the cause of removal upon inquiry.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3. All three statements are correct. The tenure is four years or 65 years of age. Post-tenure, they are ineligible for further government employment. For removal on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity, the President must refer the matter to the Supreme Court, and can only act if the Court advises removal after an inquiry.

Question 8

Consider the following pairs regarding the organizational structure of the CVC:
1. Chief Technical Examiners’ Wing : Conducts oral inquiries in departmental proceedings.
2. Commissioners for Departmental Inquiries : Investigates complaints relating to construction works.
3. Secretariat : Consists of a Secretary, Joint Secretaries, and other staff.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only one pair. Only the third pair is correctly matched. The Chief Technical Examiners’ Wing conducts technical audits and investigates complaints about construction works. The Commissioners for Departmental Inquiries (CDIs) function as Inquiry Officers to conduct oral inquiries. The Secretariat comprises administrative staff including a Secretary and Joint Secretaries.

Question 9

With reference to the removal of the Central Vigilance Commissioner, consider the following circumstances:
1. Being adjudged an insolvent.
2. Engaging in paid employment outside the duties of his office during the term.
3. Acquiring a financial interest that is likely to prejudicially affect official functions.
4. Being convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude in the opinion of the Supreme Court.
In
how many of the above circumstances can the President remove the Commissioner without referring the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry?

Accepted Answer

Only three. The President can remove the CVC without a Supreme Court inquiry for being an insolvent, engaging in paid employment, or acquiring a prejudicial financial interest. However, if convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude, the opinion that matters is that of the Central Government, not the Supreme Court. Therefore, only the first three circumstances are correctly stated for removal without a Supreme Court inquiry.

Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):
1. The CVC is a multi-member body with one chairperson and not more than three vigilance commissioners.
2. The salary and allowances of the Central Vigilance Commissioner are similar to those of a member of the UPSC.
3. A member of the CVC, after their tenure, is eligible for reappointment to the commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3. All three statements are incorrect. Statement 1 is wrong because the CVC has not more than two vigilance commissioners. Statement 2 is wrong because the CVC's salary is similar to the Chairman of UPSC, not a member. Statement 3 is wrong because after their tenure, they are not eligible for further employment under the Central or a state government, which includes reappointment.

Question 11

With reference to the role of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) in appointments, consider the following statements:
1. The Central Vigilance Commissioner chairs the committee that recommends the appointment of the Director of Enforcement.
2. The CVC is part of the selection committee for appointing the Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
3. The committee responsible for recommending the Director of Enforcement also recommends officers for posts above the level of Deputy Director of Enforcement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 only. Statement 1 is correct as the CVC chairs the selection committee for the Director of Enforcement. Statement 2 is incorrect because the CVC is involved in selecting officers of SP level and above in the CBI, but explicitly *except* for the Director of CBI. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the same committee recommends officers above the Deputy Director level, it does so only in consultation with the Director of Enforcement, which is a crucial procedural detail.

Question 12

Consider the following functions:
1. Receiving information on suspicious transactions under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
2. Recommending the appointment of the Director of Prosecution in the CBI.
3. Conducting preliminary inquiries into complaints referred by the Lokpal.
4. Tendering advice to the Central government on matters referred to it.
How many of the above are functions of the Central Vigilance Commission?

Accepted Answer

All four. All four statements list functions explicitly assigned to the Central Vigilance Commission. It is the notified authority for suspicious transactions under PMLA, recommends the Director of Prosecution for CBI, conducts preliminary inquiries for Lokpal, and advises the Central government on referred matters.

Question 13

Consider the following categories of officials:
1. Members of All India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union.
2. Officers in Grade D and above in the Reserve Bank of India.
3. All officers in Schedule A and B Public Sector Undertakings.
4. Senior Divisional Managers and above in Life Insurance Corporation.
How many of the above categories fall under the jurisdiction of the Central Vigilance Commission?

Accepted Answer

Only three. The CVC's jurisdiction extends to Members of All India Services (Union), Officers in Grade D and above in RBI, and Senior Divisional Managers and above in LIC. However, for Schedule A and B PSUs, its jurisdiction is limited to Chief Executives, Executives on the Board, and other officers of E-8 and above, not all officers. Therefore, only three of the listed categories are correctly stated.

Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for inquiries referred by the Lokpal to the CVC:
Statement I: The Central Vigilance Commission is empowered to conduct a preliminary inquiry into complaints referred by the Lokpal concerning officers of Groups A, B, C, and D.
Statement II: After conducting a preliminary inquiry into a Lokpal reference concerning Group C and D officials, the CVC must send its report to the Lokpal for a decision on the further course of action.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Statement I is correct; the CVC is empowered to conduct preliminary inquiries for all four groups (A, B, C, D) upon referral from the Lokpal. Statement II is incorrect; for Group A and B officers, the report is sent to the Lokpal. However, for Group C and D officials, the CVC itself causes further investigation and decides on the subsequent course of action, rather than sending a report back to the Lokpal for a decision.

Question 15

Consider the following statements about the superintendence powers of the CVC:
1. It exercises superintendence over the vigilance administration in all authorities owned or controlled by the Central Government.
2. It exercises superintendence over the Delhi Special Police Establishment (CBI) for all investigation-related matters.
3. It can give directions to the CBI for superintendence purposes related to offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is incorrect as the CVC's superintendence is over vigilance administration in the *ministries* of the Central government or its authorities, not necessarily all of them. Statement 2 is incorrect because the CVC's superintendence over the CBI is limited specifically to the investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, not for all investigation matters. Statement 3 is correct as the CVC can give directions to the CBI within this limited scope. The question asks for the incorrect statements.

Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding the Chief Vigilance Officer (CVO) in a Union Government ministry:
1. The CVO functions as the head of the Vigilance Division within the ministry.
2. The CVO's primary advisory role is towards the Central Vigilance Commission.
3. The CVO serves as a communication link between their organisation and the Central Bureau of Investigation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct as the CVO heads the Vigilance Division. Statement 3 is correct as the CVO provides a link to the CBI. Statement 2 is incorrect; the CVO assists and advises the Secretary or Head of Office of their own organisation, not primarily the CVC.

Question 17

With reference to the functions performed by a Chief Vigilance Officer (CVO),
how many of the following are correctly stated?
1. Collecting intelligence about corrupt practices of employees.
2. Investigating verifiable allegations reported to him.
3. Imposing disciplinary penalties on employees found guilty.
4. Referring matters to the Central Vigilance Commission for advice.

Accepted Answer

Only three. The CVO's functions include collecting intelligence, investigating allegations, and referring matters to the CVC. However, the CVO does not impose penalties; they process investigation reports for the consideration of the 'disciplinary authority concerned', which is a separate entity.

Question 18

Statement I: The Chief Vigilance Officer (CVO) processes investigation reports for further consideration by the concerned disciplinary authority.
Statement II: The CVO is the final disciplinary authority in all vigilance matters within a ministry.

Accepted Answer

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Statement I is correct; the CVO processes reports for the disciplinary authority. Statement II is incorrect; the CVO assists and advises the Secretary/Head of Office and processes reports for the disciplinary authority, but is not the final authority itself.

Question 19

With reference to the institutional linkages of a Chief Vigilance Officer (CVO), consider the following statements:
1. The CVO advises the Secretary of the ministry on vigilance matters.
2. The CVO acts as a link between the organisation and the Central Vigilance Commission.
3. The CVO is exclusively subordinate to the Central Bureau of Investigation.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

3 only. Statements 1 and 2 are correct descriptions of the CVO's role. Statement 3 is incorrect because the CVO provides a link to both the CVC and the CBI, and is not exclusively subordinate to the CBI. The question asks for the incorrect statement.

Question 20

Consider the following pairs:
1. Chief Vigilance Officer : Heads the Vigilance Division of an organisation.
2. Secretary of a Ministry : Receives advice on vigilance from the CVO.
3. Central Bureau of Investigation : Receives matters for advice from the CVO.
4. Disciplinary Authority : Considers investigation reports processed by the CVO.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only three pairs. Pair 1 is correct. Pair 2 is correct as the CVO advises the Secretary. Pair 4 is correct as the CVO processes reports for the disciplinary authority. Pair 3 is incorrect; the CVO refers matters for 'advice' to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), not the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). The CVO provides a 'link' to the CBI.

Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014:
1. The Act provides for a mechanism to protect the identity of whistleblowers.
2. The Act is applicable to all government bodies, including the Special Protection Group.
3. The Act prescribes a punishment of up to five years in prison for false complaints.
4. Disclosures can only be made in writing and must be submitted in person.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Only one. Only the first statement is correct. The Act is not applicable to the Special Protection Group (SPG). The punishment for false or frivolous complaints is up to two years in prison, not five. Disclosures can be made in writing or by email.

Question 22

With reference to the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014, consider the following statements:
1. Under the Act, the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is designated as the sole competent authority for receiving public interest disclosures.
2. The Act aims to encourage the disclosure of information about corruption or wilful misuse of power by public servants, including ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. Statement 2 is correct as the Act encourages disclosures against public servants, including ministers. Statement 1 is incorrect because while the CVC is the current competent authority, the Act allows the government to appoint any other body for receiving such complaints, meaning the CVC is not the sole authority.

Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for making a disclosure under the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014:
1. A disclosure must be made in good faith, accompanied by a personal declaration of the whistleblower's belief in the truth of the information.
2. Action can be taken on an anonymous disclosure if the allegations are found to be substantially true upon preliminary inquiry.
3. The Act mandates that the identity of the public servant being complained against must be correct for any action to be taken.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only. The Act explicitly states that no action shall be taken on a disclosure if it does not indicate the identity of the complainant. Therefore, anonymous disclosures are not acted upon, making statement 2 incorrect. Statements 1 and 3 accurately reflect the Act's provisions regarding good faith declarations and the need for a correct identity of the public servant.

Question 24

Consider the following pairs with respect to the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014:
1. Penalty for false complaints : Up to two years in prison
2. Fine for frivolous complaints : Up to ₹30,000
3. Applicability : Includes the Special Protection Group
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Only two pairs. The Act specifies a punishment of up to two years in prison and a fine of up to ₹30,000 for false or frivolous complaints. However, the Act is explicitly not applicable to the Special Protection Group (SPG). Therefore, only the first two pairs are correctly matched.

Question 25

Statement I: The Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014, provides a mechanism to protect the identity of individuals who expose corruption by public functionaries.
Statement II: The Act mandates that every disclosure must be made in good faith and the identity of the complainant must be provided for action to be taken.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Accepted Answer

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.. Both statements are correct features of the Act. Statement I highlights the purpose of protecting the whistleblower's identity. Statement II outlines the procedural necessity of providing one's identity for the complaint to be valid. However, the requirement to provide an identity (Statement II) is a condition for the complaint to be acted upon, not the direct explanation for the mechanism that protects that identity (Statement I). They are two distinct, correct provisions of the Act.

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