Question Bank›Indian Polity›Municipalities
Indian Polity

Municipalities

UPSC Indian Polity MCQs on Municipalities — topic-wise, with answer explanations.

Lesson
01Historical Background02Making of the Constitution03Salient Features of the Constitution04Preamble of the Constitution05Union and its Territory06Citizenship07Fundamental Rights08Directive Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties09Amendment of the Constitution & Basic Structure10Parliamentary System11Federal System12Centre–State Relations13Inter-State Relations14Emergency Provisions15President & Vice-President16Prime Minister17Central Council of Ministers & Cabinet Committees18Parliament19Parliamentary Committees20Parliamentary Forums & Parliamentary Group21Supreme Court22Judicial Review23Judicial Activism24Public Interest Litigation25Governor26Chief Minister27State Council of Ministers28State Legislature29High Court30Tribunals31Subordinate Courts32Special Provisions for Some States33Panchayati Raj34Municipalities35Union Territories36Scheduled and Tribal Areas37Election Commission, Elections & Election Laws38Union & State Public Service Commissions39Finance Commission & GST Council40National Commissions for SCs, STs, BCs & Linguistic Minorities41Comptroller and Auditor General of India42Attorney General of India & Advocate General of the State43NITI Aayog44National & State Human Rights Commissions45Central & State Information Commissions46Central Vigilance Commission47Central Bureau of Investigation48Lokpal, Lokayuktas & National Investigation Agency49National Disaster Management Authority50Co-operative Societies51Official Language52Public Services53Rights and Liabilities of the Government54Special Provisions Relating to Certain Classes55Political Parties & Role of Regional Parties56Electoral Reforms57Voting Behaviour & Coalition Government58Anti-Defection Law & Pressure Groups59National Integration60Foreign Policy
Indian PolityLesson 34

Showing 3 of 55 questions

Textbookmedium

Q1.How many of the following are mentioned as types of urban local governments in India? 1. Municipal Corporation 2. Cantonment Board 3. Port Trust 4. Zila Parishad 5. Special Purpose Agency

Explanation: The text lists eight types of urban local bodies, which include Municipal Corporation, Cantonment Board, Port Trust, and Special Purpose Agency. Zila Parishad is a part of the Panchayati Raj system for rural local governance, not urban.
Textbookhard

Q2.Consider the following pairs regarding the central-level administration of urban local government: 1. Ministry of Home Affairs : Administration of urban local government in Union Territories 2. Ministry of Defence : Administration of cantonment boards 3. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs : General administration of all urban local bodies How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Explanation: The Ministry of Home Affairs deals with urban local government in Union Territories, and the Ministry of Defence deals with cantonment boards. However, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs deals with the 'subject' of urban local government at the central level, not the 'general administration of all' bodies, as some fall under other specific ministries. Therefore, only the first two pairs are correctly matched.
Textbookmedium

Q3.Consider the following two statements: Statement I: The jurisdiction of an urban local government is determined and demarcated by the central government. Statement II: The system of urban government was constitutionalised through the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, bringing it under a national framework.

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect; the jurisdiction of an urban local government is demarcated by the respective state government, not the central government. Statement II is correct; the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 granted constitutional status to the system of urban local government.
Textbookhard

Q4.With reference to Urban Local Government in India, consider the following statements: 1. The governance of an urban area is carried out by representatives directly elected by the people. 2. All eight types of urban local governments in India were created by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992. 3. The subject of cantonment boards is dealt with by the Ministry of Home Affairs at the Central level. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as urban local government is based on governance by elected representatives. Statement 2 is incorrect; while the 74th Amendment constitutionalised the system, it did not create all eight types of urban bodies, many of which existed prior to 1992. Statement 3 is incorrect; cantonment boards are handled by the Ministry of Defence, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Thus, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q5.Consider the following statements regarding Urban Local Government in India: 1. The system of urban government in India derives its constitutional status from the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act. 2. In India, there are eight specified types of urban local governments. 3. The jurisdiction of an urban local government is limited to a specific area demarcated by the state government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: All three statements are factually correct. The 74th Amendment constitutionalised urban local governments; there are eight types of such bodies mentioned; and the state government is responsible for demarcating their jurisdiction.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q6.Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of urban local government in India: 1. Lord Ripon's Resolution of 1882 is hailed as the 'Magna Carta' of local self-government. 2. Under the Government of India Act of 1919, local self-government was made a provincial subject under the scheme of provincial autonomy. 3. The first municipal corporation in India was established in Madras in 1688. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced a dyarchical scheme where local self-government became a 'transferred subject' under an Indian minister. It was the Government of India Act of 1935 that declared local self-government a 'provincial subject' under the provincial autonomy scheme. Statements 1 and 3 are correct historical facts.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookhard

Q7.Consider the following pairs: Committee/Commission : Chairman 1. Local Finance Enquiry Committee : P.K. Wattal 2. Rural-Urban Relationship Committee : Rafiq Zakaria 3. Taxation Enquiry Commission : John Matthai 4. National Commission on Urbanisation : C.M. Correa How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Explanation: The Rural-Urban Relationship Committee (1963-66) was chaired by A.P. Jain, not Rafiq Zakaria. The other three pairs are correctly matched: Local Finance Enquiry Committee (P.K. Wattal), Taxation Enquiry Commission (John Matthai), and National Commission on Urbanisation (C.M. Correa). Therefore, only three pairs are correct.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q8.Consider the following historical events related to local self-government in India: 1. Establishment of municipal corporations in Bombay and Calcutta. 2. Lord Mayo's Resolution on financial decentralisation. 3. Appointment of the Royal Commission on decentralisation. 4. Passing of the Cantonments Act by the Central legislature. How many of the events listed above occurred before the year 1900?

Explanation: The establishment of municipal corporations in Bombay and Calcutta occurred in 1726. Lord Mayo's Resolution was in 1870. Both of these events occurred before 1900. The Royal Commission on decentralisation was appointed in 1907, and the Cantonments Act was passed in 1924, both of which are after 1900. Thus, only two of the listed events occurred before 1900.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q9.Statement I: The Government of India Act of 1919 made local self-government a transferred subject in the provinces. Statement II: The transfer of local self-government to the charge of a responsible Indian minister was a significant step in the development of local self-government institutions.

Explanation: Statement I is a correct fact. Under the dyarchy system introduced by the 1919 Act, provincial subjects were divided into 'reserved' and 'transferred'. Local self-government was a transferred subject. Statement II correctly explains the significance of this classification: being a 'transferred subject' meant it was administered by a minister responsible to the provincial legislative council, thereby increasing Indian involvement in administration.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q10.With reference to the evolution of urban local bodies in India, consider the following statements: 1. Lord Ripon is called the father of local-self government in India. 2. The Royal Commission on decentralisation (1907) was chaired by Hobhouse. 3. The Government of India Act of 1935 declared local self-government a central subject. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect. The Government of India Act of 1935, which introduced provincial autonomy, declared local self-government a provincial subject, not a central subject. Statements 1 and 2 are historically accurate facts. The question asks for the incorrect statement.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q11.Consider the following pairs with reference to Part IX-A of the Indian Constitution: 1. Article 243Q : Constitution of municipalities 2. Article 243W : Powers, authority and responsibilities of municipalities 3. Article 243ZA : Finance commission 4. Article 243ZG : Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Explanation: Article 243ZA deals with Elections to the municipalities, not the Finance Commission. The Finance Commission is covered under Article 243Y. The other three pairs are correctly matched as per the constitutional provisions.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q12.With reference to the Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution of India, how many of the following are listed as functional items within the purview of municipalities? 1. Urban planning including town planning 2. Fire services 3. Urban poverty alleviation 4. Vital statistics including registration of births and deaths 5. Regulation of land use and construction of buildings

Explanation: The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution contains 18 functional items for municipalities. All five items listed—Urban planning, Fire services, Urban poverty alleviation, Vital statistics, and Regulation of land use—are included in this schedule.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q13.Consider the following statements regarding the constitutionalization of Municipalities in India: 1. The 65th Constitutional Amendment Bill (Nagarpalika Bill), introduced in 1989, was passed by the Lok Sabha but was defeated in the Rajya Sabha. 2. The Act that constitutionalized municipalities added Part IX-A and the Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution. 3. Following the Act, state governments are under a constitutional obligation to adopt the new system of municipalities. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Explanation: All the given statements are correct. The 65th Amendment Bill (1989) did fail in the Rajya Sabha. The subsequent Act did add Part IX-A and the Twelfth Schedule. The Act also made it a constitutional obligation for states to adopt the new municipal system. Therefore, none of the statements are incorrect.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookhard

Q14.Consider the following statements: Statement I: The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the municipalities are vested in the State Election Commission. Statement II: The State Legislature is responsible for endowing municipalities with powers and authority necessary for them to function as institutions of self-government. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Explanation: Both statements are factually correct based on the provisions for municipalities. Statement I refers to the role of the State Election Commission in ensuring free and fair elections (Article 243ZA). Statement II refers to the legislative power of the state to devolve functions to municipalities (Article 243W). While both are related to the functioning of municipalities, the devolution of powers by the legislature does not explain the constitutional mandate given to the State Election Commission. They are two distinct, independent provisions.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q15.With reference to Part IX-A of the Constitution, consider the following pairs: 1. Article 243S : Constitution and composition of wards committees 2. Article 243T : Reservation of seats 3. Article 243Y : Elections to the municipalities Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched. Article 243S deals with the constitution of Wards Committees, and Article 243T deals with the reservation of seats in municipalities. Pair 3 is incorrect; Article 243Y pertains to the Finance Commission for reviewing the financial position of municipalities, while Article 243ZA deals with elections to the municipalities.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q16.Consider the following statements regarding the authorities within a Municipal Corporation: Statement I: The Mayor is the formal head of the corporation, whose main function is to preside over the meetings of the Council. Statement II: The Municipal Commissioner is the chief executive authority of the corporation, responsible for implementing the decisions taken by the Council.

Explanation: Both statements are correct descriptions of the roles within a Municipal Corporation. Statement I describes the Mayor's role as the formal, ceremonial head of the deliberative wing (the Council). Statement II describes the Municipal Commissioner's role as the head of the executive wing. While both are true, the Commissioner's executive function does not explain the Mayor's formal role; they are distinct aspects of the corporation's governance structure.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q17.Consider the following urban bodies: 1. Municipal Corporation 2. Notified Area Committee 3. Cantonment Board 4. Port Trust How many of the urban bodies listed above are created and administered by the Central Government?

Explanation: Municipal Corporations and Notified Area Committees are created and administered by state governments. Cantonment Boards are created under the Cantonments Act, a central legislation, and work under the administrative control of the Defence Ministry of the Central Government. Port Trusts are created by an Act of Parliament (Central Government) to manage port areas. Therefore, two of the listed bodies fall under the purview of the Central Government.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookhard

Q18.Consider the following pairs: 1. Notified Area Committee : An entirely nominated body 2. Town Area Committee : Created by an executive resolution 3. Industrial Township : Specified by the Governor where municipal services are provided by an industrial establishment 4. Port Trust : Manages ports and provides civic amenities How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Explanation: Pair 1 is correct; a Notified Area Committee is an entirely nominated body. Pair 2 is incorrect; a Town Area Committee is created by a separate act of a state legislature, not an executive resolution. Pair 3 is correct; the Governor can specify an industrial township in an area where an industrial establishment provides municipal services. Pair 4 is correct; a Port Trust has the dual purpose of managing the port and providing civic amenities. Therefore, three pairs are correctly matched.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookhard

Q19.With reference to the factors considered by the Governor to specify a transitional area, a smaller urban area, or a larger urban area, consider the following statements: 1. The revenue generated for local administration is one of the specified factors. 2. The percentage of employment in agricultural activities is a determining criterion. 3. The Governor is bound to consider only the factors explicitly enumerated in the Act. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as 'Revenue generated for local administration' is a listed factor. Statement 2 is incorrect because the criterion is the 'Percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities', not agricultural activities. Statement 3 is incorrect because after listing several factors, the provision includes 'Such other factors as he may deem fit', giving the Governor discretionary power beyond the enumerated list. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q20.With reference to the Notified Area Committee, consider the following statements: 1. It is created by a notification in the government gazette for a town that is developing fast due to industrialisation. 2. It is considered a statutory body because it functions within the framework of the State Municipal Act. 3. All its members, including the chairman, are nominated by the state government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; a Notified Area Committee is established by a government notification for fast-developing towns. Statement 2 is incorrect; the source explicitly states that it is 'neither an elected body nor a statutory body'. Statement 3 is correct; it is described as an 'entirely nominated body', where all members including the chairman are nominated by the state government.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookhard

Q21.As per the provisions for the composition of a municipality, the state legislature may provide for the representation of which of the following persons? 1. Persons with special knowledge in municipal administration, having the right to vote. 2. Members of the Lok Sabha representing the municipal area. 3. Members of the Rajya Sabha registered as electors within the municipal area. 4. Chairpersons of wards committees. How many of the above are correct?

Explanation: The state legislature may provide for the representation of: 1. Persons with special knowledge, but without the right to vote. 2. Members of the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly. 3. Members of the Rajya Sabha and state legislative council. 4. Chairpersons of committees, but specifically other than wards committees. Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q22.Consider the following statements regarding the reservation of seats in municipalities: 1. The act mandates the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women. 2. The state legislature is obligated to make provisions for the reservation of seats in favour of backward classes. 3. The reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is determined in proportion to their population in the municipal area. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. The text states that the state legislature 'may also make any provision' for reservation for backward classes, which implies it is a discretionary power, not an obligation. Statement 1 is correct as the act provides for the reservation of not less than one-third of seats for women. Statement 3 is also correct as reservation for SCs and STs is proportional to their population.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookhard

Q23.Consider the following two statements: Statement I: A wards committee, consisting of one or more wards, shall be constituted within the territorial area of a municipality having a population of three lakh or more. Statement II: The state legislature is empowered to make provisions regarding the composition, territorial area, and the manner of filling seats in a wards committee. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Explanation: Both statements are factually correct based on the constitutional provisions for municipalities. Statement I establishes the mandatory condition (population of 3 lakh or more) for the creation of a wards committee. Statement II outlines the powers of the state legislature in structuring this committee. However, Statement II describes the legislative procedure for forming the committee, it does not explain the reason or basis for the population threshold mentioned in Statement I. They are two independent, correct provisions.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q24.With reference to the powers of the State Legislature concerning municipalities, consider the following provisions: 1. To provide the manner of election of the chairperson of a municipality. 2. To make provisions for the reservation of offices of chairpersons for women. 3. To make provisions for the constitution of committees in addition to the wards committees. 4. To provide for the indirect election of all members of a municipality. How many of the above provisions are within the powers of the State Legislature?

Explanation: The State Legislature has the power to decide the manner of election of the chairperson, reserve chairperson offices for women, and constitute other committees. However, the provision that 'All the members of a municipality shall be elected directly by the people' is a core feature. The legislature cannot provide for the indirect election of all members. Therefore, the first three provisions are correct.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q25.With reference to the composition and election in a municipality, consider the following statements: 1. All members of a municipality are elected directly from territorial constituencies known as wards. 2. The manner of election of the chairperson of a municipality is determined by the Parliament of India. 3. The state legislature can provide for the representation of the chairpersons of committees (other than wards committees) in a municipality. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as the primary members of a municipality are directly elected from wards. Statement 2 is incorrect; the state legislature, not Parliament, provides for the manner of election of the chairperson. Statement 3 is correct as the state legislature may provide for the representation of chairpersons of committees, other than wards committees, in the municipality.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q26.Consider the following statements regarding the duration of a municipality: 1. A municipality reconstituted after a premature dissolution enjoys a full term of five years. 2. Fresh elections to constitute a municipality must be completed within six months from the date of its dissolution. 3. If the remaining period of a dissolved municipality is less than six months, it is not mandatory to hold an election to constitute a new municipality for that period. How many of the above statements are correct?

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; a municipality reconstituted after dissolution only continues for the remainder of the term. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Elections must be held within six months of dissolution, but this is not required if the remaining term of the dissolved municipality was less than six months.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q27.With reference to the disqualifications for membership in a municipality, which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Explanation: The law provides a specific protection regarding age. It states that no person shall be disqualified on the ground that he is less than 25 years of age if he has attained the age of 21 years. Therefore, the statement that such a person can be disqualified is incorrect.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookhard

Q28.Statement I: A municipality must be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard before its dissolution. Statement II: An amendment to an existing state law cannot be used to cause the dissolution of a municipality that is functioning properly before the expiry of its five-year term.

Explanation: Both statements are correct provisions that act as safeguards against the arbitrary dissolution of a municipality. Statement I refers to the principle of natural justice that must be followed during the dissolution process. Statement II provides a legal safeguard against legislative action aimed at prematurely ending a municipality's term. However, they are two independent safeguards and one does not explain the other.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q29.A municipality elected in January 2020 is dissolved in January 2023. A new municipality is constituted after fresh elections in May 2023. For how long will this new municipality remain in office?

Explanation: A municipality constituted upon the dissolution of a previous one before the expiration of its duration continues only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved municipality would have continued. The original term was until January 2025 (five years from Jan 2020). Therefore, the new municipality will serve only until January 2025.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookhard

Q30.Consider the following pairs regarding provisions for municipalities: 1. Minimum age for membership : 25 years 2. Time limit for re-election after dissolution : Six months 3. Term of a reconstituted municipality : Full five years 4. Prerequisite for dissolution : Reasonable opportunity of being heard How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Explanation: Let's evaluate the pairs: 1. Minimum age: Incorrect. A person cannot be disqualified if they have attained 21 years, implying 21 is the effective minimum age. 2. Time limit for re-election: Correct. Elections must be held within six months of dissolution. 3. Term of reconstituted municipality: Incorrect. It serves only for the remainder of the original term. 4. Prerequisite for dissolution: Correct. A municipality must be given a reasonable opportunity to be heard before dissolution. Thus, only two pairs (2 and 4) are correctly matched.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookhard

Q31.Consider the following statements regarding the State Finance Commission's role with respect to municipalities: 1. It determines the specific taxes, duties, tolls, and fees that must be assigned to the municipalities. 2. It reviews the financial position of both municipalities and panchayats. 3. Its recommendations concerning grants-in-aid are binding on the state government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; the commission recommends the principles that should govern the determination of taxes, not the determination itself. Statement 2 is correct as the text specifies that the finance commission constituted for panchayats also reviews the financial position of municipalities. Statement 3 is incorrect; the commission's role is recommendatory. The governor places the recommendations along with an 'action taken report' before the state legislature, which implies the government is not bound by them.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q32.Consider the following as potential sources of income for urban local bodies: 1. Octroi on the entry of goods 2. Tolls on new bridges 3. Profits and dividends from municipal properties 4. Loans directly from the Central Government How many of the above are mentioned as sources of income for municipalities in the provided text?

Explanation: The text lists several sources of income. Octroi and tolls on new bridges are mentioned under local taxes. Profits and dividends are mentioned under non-tax revenue. However, the text states that urban local bodies can raise loans from the state government and other financial institutions with state government approval, not directly from the Central Government. Therefore, only the first three items are correct sources of income.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q33.Statement I: The state legislature is empowered to authorise a municipality to levy and collect taxes, and also to assign to it taxes levied and collected by the state government. Statement II: A municipality has the autonomy to borrow from any financial institution to meet its capital expenditure without requiring external approval.

Explanation: Statement I is correct as the text explicitly states that the state legislature may authorise a municipality to levy taxes and assign taxes collected by the state. Statement II is incorrect because the text clearly mentions that municipalities can borrow from financial institutions 'only with the approval of the state government'. This highlights a significant constraint on their financial autonomy.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookhard

Q34.With reference to municipal finance, consider the following statements: 1. The State Finance Commission recommends the principles for the distribution of state-levied taxes between the state and municipalities. 2. The Central Finance Commission directly provides grants-in-aid to municipalities to supplement their resources. 3. The Governor is required to place the recommendations of the State Finance Commission, along with an action taken report, before the state legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The State Finance Commission recommends principles for tax distribution. Statement 3 is also correct as the Governor places the commission's report and the action taken report before the legislature. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Central Finance Commission does not provide grants directly to municipalities; it suggests measures to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the municipalities, based on the recommendations of the State Finance Commission. The question asks for the incorrect statement.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q35.Consider the following pairs related to municipal finance: 1. Authorisation to levy taxes : State Legislature 2. Review of financial position : State Finance Commission 3. Suggesting measures to augment state's consolidated fund for municipalities : Central Finance Commission 4. Making provisions for auditing of municipal accounts : Governor How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Explanation: Pair 1 is correct: The state legislature authorises municipalities to levy taxes. Pair 2 is correct: The State Finance Commission reviews the financial position of municipalities. Pair 3 is correct: The Central Finance Commission suggests measures to augment the state's consolidated fund to help municipalities. Pair 4 is incorrect: The text states that the 'state legislature may make provisions with respect to... the auditing of such accounts', not the Governor. Therefore, only three pairs are correctly matched.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q36.With reference to the District Planning Committee (DPC), consider the following statements: 1. The State Legislature is empowered to make provisions regarding the composition of the DPC. 2. The act mandates that at least four-fifths of the DPC members must be elected by and from amongst the elected members of the district panchayat and municipalities. 3. The representation of members from rural and urban bodies in the DPC is proportional to the ratio of rural and urban populations in the district. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: The 74th Amendment Act provides for the establishment of a District Planning Committee. The state legislature is given the power to legislate on its composition. The Act specifies that four-fifths of the members must be elected by the elected members of the district panchayat and municipalities, with representation proportional to the rural-urban population ratio.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q37.Consider the following descriptions of municipal personnel systems in India: 1. Unified System: State government appoints and controls personnel who are transferable between different urban local bodies within the state. 2. Integrated System: Municipal personnel are part of the state services and are transferable between local bodies and state government departments. 3. Separate System: Each local body appoints and administers its own personnel, who are not transferable to other local bodies. How many of the above descriptions are correctly stated?

Explanation: The text describes three types of municipal personnel systems. The Unified System involves state-wide services for urban bodies. The Integrated System merges local and state civil services. The Separate System grants local bodies autonomy over their own personnel. All three descriptions accurately reflect the systems outlined.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookhard

Q38.With reference to the Metropolitan Planning Committee (MPC), consider the following statements: 1. The act lays down that two-thirds of the members of an MPC should be elected by the elected members of the municipalities and chairpersons of the panchayats in the metropolitan area. 2. In preparing the draft development plan, an MPC must have regard to the overall objectives and priorities set by the Government of India and the respective state government. 3. The development plan prepared by the MPC is directly implemented by the committee without requiring approval from the state government. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Explanation: The chairperson of the Metropolitan Planning Committee forwards the prepared draft development plan to the state government. The text does not state that the plan is final or that it bypasses state government approval for implementation. Statements 1 and 2 are correct descriptions of the MPC's composition and planning considerations.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookhard

Q39.Consider the following pairs regarding institutions for municipal personnel training: Institution : Description 1. All-India Institute of Local Self-Government : A private registered society constituted in 1927. 2. Centre for Urban and Environmental Studies : Set up based on the recommendation of the Nur-ud-din Ahmed Committee. 3. National Institute of Urban Affairs : Established in 1985. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Explanation: The All-India Institute of Local Self-Government is a private registered society. The Centre for Urban and Environmental Studies was established based on the Nur-ud-din Ahmed Committee's recommendation. However, the National Institute of Urban Affairs was established in 1976, not 1985. The Human Settlement Management Institute was established in 1985.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q40.Statement I: Both the District Planning Committee and the Metropolitan Planning Committee are constitutionally mandated to prepare a draft development plan for their respective jurisdictions. Statement II: The chairperson of both the District Planning Committee and the Metropolitan Planning Committee is responsible for forwarding the prepared development plan to the state government.

Explanation: Both statements are factually correct as per the constitutional provisions for these committees. Statement I describes their primary function, and Statement II describes the subsequent procedural step. However, the act of forwarding the plan (Statement II) is a procedural requirement, not an explanation for why the committees are mandated to prepare the plan in the first place (Statement I).
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookhard

Q41.Consider the following statements about the Central Council of Local Government: 1. It was constituted under Article 263 of the Constitution by an order of the President. 2. The Union Minister for Urban Development serves as its Chairman. 3. From its inception in 1954, it has exclusively dealt with matters of urban local government. How many of the above statements are correct?

Explanation: The Central Council of Local Government was set up in 1954 under Article 263 by a Presidential order, and it is chaired by the Union Minister for Urban Development. Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct. However, it did not exclusively deal with urban matters from its inception; it handled both urban and rural local governments until 1958, making statement 3 incorrect.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookhard

Q42.Consider the following statements regarding the application of the constitutional provisions for municipalities (Part IX-A): 1. The President may direct that the provisions apply to a Union Territory with specified exceptions and modifications. 2. The provisions automatically apply to the scheduled areas and tribal areas within the states. 3. The act explicitly states that it shall not affect the functions and powers of the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Explanation: The provisions for municipalities do not automatically apply to scheduled and tribal areas in the states; the text explicitly states the act does not apply to these areas, though Parliament may extend them. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect. The President does have the power to modify the application for Union Territories (Statement 1 is correct), and the act does not affect the powers of the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council (Statement 3 is correct). The question asks for the incorrect statement.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q43.Statement I: The validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats for municipalities cannot be questioned in any court. Statement II: An election to any municipality can be questioned only by an election petition presented to an authority specified by the state legislature.

Explanation: Both statements are correct and reflect the constitutional bar on judicial interference in specific electoral matters of municipalities. Statement I deals with the validity of laws on delimitation and seat allotment. Statement II deals with the specific procedure for challenging an election result. They are two distinct, though related, provisions concerning judicial bars, and one does not serve as the direct explanation for the other.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookhard

Q44.Consider the following purported functions of the Central Council of Local Government: 1. Making binding policy recommendations for states. 2. Directly disbursing Central financial assistance to local bodies. 3. Making proposals for central legislation concerning urban local government. 4. Adjudicating disputes between the Centre and states on local governance. How many of the above are actual functions of the Council?

Explanation: The Central Council of Local Government is an advisory body, so its recommendations are not binding. It only recommends Central financial assistance, it does not disburse it. It does not adjudicate disputes but rather examines cooperation. Its function does include making proposals for legislation. Therefore, only one of the listed items (number 3) is a correct function.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Textbookmedium

Q45.With reference to the transitional provisions following the commencement of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, consider the following statements: 1. States were given a maximum period of one year from June 1, 1993, to adopt the new system of municipalities. 2. All municipalities existing immediately before the act's commencement were allowed to continue until the expiry of their term, unless dissolved sooner by the state legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: The act provided a transition period where states had up to one year from its commencement (1 June 1993) to adopt the new system. It also included a saving clause that allowed pre-existing municipalities to complete their terms, preventing an administrative vacuum, unless a state legislature chose to dissolve them earlier. Both statements are correct.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Current Affairshard

Q46.Consider the following statements in the context of the recent Chandigarh mayoral election controversy and the constitutional framework for municipal elections: 1. The superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all municipal elections are vested in the State Election Commission under Article 243ZA. 2. The controversy highlighted a systemic weakness where the impartiality of presiding officers, appointed by state officials, can be compromised, directly challenging the SEC's mandate for fair elections. 3. Article 243ZG imposes an absolute and unconditional bar on the judiciary from interfering in any electoral matter of a municipality, including questioning the validity of an election. How many of the above statements are correct?

Explanation: Statement 1 is a direct constitutional provision from Article 243ZA. Statement 2 is a correct analysis based on the current affairs article, which points out the issue of presiding officer impartiality and its impact on the electoral process overseen by the SEC. Statement 3 is incorrect. While Article 243ZG bars courts from interfering in electoral matters (like delimitation), the validity of an election can be questioned through an election petition as provided by state law. Furthermore, the Supreme Court's intervention in the Chandigarh case, using Article 142, demonstrates that the bar is not absolute, especially in cases of manifest illegality or fraud on democracy. Therefore, only two statements are correct.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Current Affairshard

Q47.In the context of recent concerns raised by the 15th Finance Commission regarding delays in constituting State Finance Commissions (SFCs), consider the following potential consequences for municipalities: 1. The Central Finance Commission may be unable to effectively recommend measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State for supplementing municipal resources. 2. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj might withhold the release of certain grants to the state for the financial year 2024-25. 3. The devolution of funds from the state government to urban local bodies may become arbitrary and less predictable. 4. Municipalities might be legally barred from levying property taxes until the SFC is constituted. How many of the above statements are correct?

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as the Central Finance Commission's recommendations to augment state funds for municipalities are based on the SFC's report. Statement 2 is correct as the current affairs note mentions the Ministry of Panchayati Raj certifies compliance before releasing grants for 2024-25. Statement 3 is correct because SFC recommendations provide a systematic basis for fund devolution, and their absence leads to unpredictability. Statement 4 is incorrect; the power for a municipality to levy taxes is authorized by the State Legislature and is not directly contingent on the timely constitution of an SFC.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Current Affairshard

Q48.With reference to the financial challenges of Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) in India, as highlighted in the context of the 16th Finance Commission's deliberations, consider the following statements: 1. The introduction of GST, which led to the abolition of octroi, has severely diminished a revenue source that previously funded a significant portion of ULBs' expenditure. 2. Despite property tax being a key source of municipal income, India's collection rate as a ratio of GDP is noted by the OECD to be among the lowest globally. 3. The Central Finance Commission's terms of reference include making direct grants to municipalities to compensate for revenue losses, bypassing state governments. 4. Intergovernmental fiscal transfers to Indian cities constitute a substantially smaller percentage of the national GDP compared to other major developing economies like Brazil and South Africa. How many of the above statements are correct?

Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect. The Central Finance Commission suggests measures to augment the *Consolidated Fund of a State* to supplement the resources of municipalities, based on the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission. It does not make direct grants bypassing the state. Statement 1 is correct as the current affairs text notes that octroi previously met almost 55% of total revenue expenditure. Statement 2 is correct as the RBI report and OECD data confirm India's low property tax collection rate. Statement 4 is correct as the current affairs text provides comparative data for South Africa (2.6%), Brazil (5.1%), and India (0.5%). Therefore, three statements are correct.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Current Affairshard

Q49.Considering the recent discussions on municipal election reforms following the Chandigarh mayoral election case, evaluate the following statements: 1. The 74th Amendment Act mandates a fixed five-year tenure for municipalities, a principle the Supreme Court reinforced in the Suresh Mahajan case. 2. The superintendence of municipal elections is vested in the State Election Commission (SEC), but its discretionary scheduling powers have been identified as a key reason for election delays. 3. The Constitution completely bars judicial review in all electoral matters of municipalities, including malpractices during the counting process. 4. The Central Council of Local Government, an advisory body, is empowered to make binding legislative proposals to ensure timely municipal elections. How many of the above statements are correct?

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as Article 243U mandates a five-year tenure, and the Suresh Mahajan case stressed its inviolability. Statement 2 is correct as the current affairs text highlights the SEC's discretionary powers as a challenge. Statement 3 is incorrect; the bar is on questioning the validity of laws on delimitation or seat allotment, not on intervening in cases of electoral malpractice during the process, as seen in the Chandigarh case. Statement 4 is incorrect; the Central Council of Local Government is an advisory body, and its proposals are not binding.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Current Affairshard

Q50.With reference to the celebration of National Panchayati Raj Day 2026, which commemorates the 73rd Amendment, consider the following statements comparing the constitutional frameworks for rural and urban local self-government in India: 1. Part IX of the Constitution, added by the 73rd Amendment, deals with Panchayats, while Part IX-A, added by the 74th Amendment, deals with Municipalities. 2. The Eleventh Schedule (Article 243G) lists 29 functional items for Panchayats, whereas the Twelfth Schedule (Article 243-W) lists 18 functional items for Municipalities. 3. The initial legislative effort to grant constitutional status to both Panchayati Raj Institutions and Municipalities was undertaken by the Rajiv Gandhi government through the 64th and 65th Amendment Bills respectively, although they failed to pass. 4. Both the 73rd and 74th Amendments mandate the establishment of a Gram Sabha, consisting of all registered voters, as the foundation of direct democracy. How many of the above statements are correct?

Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is incorrect because the Gram Sabha (Article 243A) is a feature mandated by the 73rd Amendment for Panchayats. The 74th Amendment provides for Wards Committees but does not mandate a body equivalent to the Gram Sabha for Municipalities.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Current Affairshard

Q51.The theme for National Panchayati Raj Day 2026, 'Sashakt Panchayat, Sarvangeen Vikas', underscores the importance of empowered local governments. In this context, which of the following statements regarding the constitutional provisions for Municipalities under the 74th Amendment Act is NOT correct?

Explanation: Statement (c) is incorrect. Article 243-W and the provided static text state that the state legislature 'may endow' the municipalities with such powers. The devolution of functions is at the discretion of the state legislature and is not mandatory. Statements (a), (b), and (d) are correct features of the 74th Amendment Act.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Current Affairsmedium

Q52.The theme for National Panchayati Raj Day 2026 highlights the localization of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to achieve 'Viksit Bharat' by 2047. This requires a clear understanding of the functions devolved to rural and urban local bodies. Consider the following pairs: 1. Urban planning including town planning : Twelfth Schedule 2. Slum improvement and upgradation : Twelfth Schedule 3. Rural electrification : Eleventh Schedule 4. Regulation of land use and construction of buildings : Eleventh Schedule How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Explanation: Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched. 'Urban planning' and 'Slum improvement' are explicitly mentioned as items in the Twelfth Schedule for Municipalities in the static text. 'Rural electrification' is a function for Panchayats under the Eleventh Schedule, as mentioned in the current affairs text. Pair 4 is incorrect; 'Regulation of land use and construction of buildings' is an urban function listed in the Twelfth Schedule, not the Eleventh.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Current Affairshard

Q53.Considering the celebration of National Panchayati Raj Day which commemorates the 73rd Amendment, analyze the parallel constitutional framework for urban local bodies established by the 74th Amendment. How many of the following statements correctly compare the two frameworks? 1. The 73rd Amendment added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule for rural bodies, while the 74th Amendment added Part IX-A and the Twelfth Schedule for urban bodies. 2. Both amendments mandate the creation of a single, unified State Election Commission responsible for conducting elections to both Panchayats and Municipalities. 3. The 73rd Amendment provides for a Gram Sabha as a forum for direct democracy, a feature that has a direct constitutional equivalent in urban areas called the Ward Sabha under Article 243-S of the 74th Amendment. 4. The original Nagarpalika Bill (65th Amendment Bill) was introduced by the same government that successfully enacted the 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; it accurately describes the constitutional parts and schedules added by each amendment. Statement 2 is correct; a single State Election Commission is constituted for both rural and urban local body elections. Statement 3 is incorrect; Article 243-S provides for the constitution of Ward Committees, not a direct democratic body like the Gram Sabha. The concept of a Ward Sabha is a state-level legislative creation, not a direct constitutional mandate equivalent to the Gram Sabha. Statement 4 is incorrect; the 65th Amendment Bill was introduced by the Rajiv Gandhi government and failed, whereas the 73rd and 74th Acts were passed by the P.V. Narasimha Rao government. Therefore, only two statements are correct.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Current Affairsmedium

Q54.The theme for National Panchayati Raj Day 2026, 'Sashakt Panchayat, Sarvangeen Vikas' (Empowered Panchayats, Holistic Development), reflects a broader goal of strengthening local self-government. In the context of empowering urban governance through the 74th Amendment Act, which of the following statements regarding its institutional design is **NOT** correct?

Explanation: The statement that the Election Commission of India is responsible for municipal elections is incorrect. The 74th Amendment Act, similar to the 73rd, vests the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the municipalities in the State Election Commission, not the Election Commission of India.
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation
Current Affairsmedium

Q55.The celebration of National Panchayati Raj Day highlights the constitutional architecture of local self-governance established by the 73rd and 74th Amendments. Match the constitutional provisions in List I with their correct subject matter in List II. **List I (Constitutional Provision)** 1. Article 243-W 2. Part IX 3. Article 243-A 4. Twelfth Schedule **List II (Subject Matter)** A. Gram Sabha as a foundation of direct democracy B. Enumerates 18 functional items for municipalities C. Deals with the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities D. Entitled 'The Panchayats', covering Articles 243 to 243-O

Explanation: The correct matches are: - Article 243-W deals with the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities. (1-C) - Part IX of the Constitution is titled 'The Panchayats' and contains Articles 243 to 243-O. (2-D) - Article 243-A specifically defines the Gram Sabha. (3-A) - The Twelfth Schedule contains the 18 functional items placed within the purview of municipalities. (4-B)
🔒 Verify your phone to reveal the answer & explanation

52 answers locked

You've used your 3 free answers in Indian Polity. Verify your phone to unlock 20 more — free.

Unlock All Questions

All questions with explanations, AI notes and a personalised revision calendar — in the free app.

↓ Get on AndroidiOS coming soon