Parliament

Q1.With reference to the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), consider the following statements: 1. The recommendations made by the Commission are binding on the concerned government or authority. 2. The Commission is required to be informed about the action taken on its recommendations within one month. 3. The Commission can inquire into a matter of human rights violation only if it is reported within six months of its occurrence. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q2.Consider the following statements regarding the appointment and tenure of the members of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): 1. The chairperson and members are appointed by the President on the recommendations of a committee that includes the Chief Justice of India. 2. The chairperson and members hold office for a term of three years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. 3. After their tenure, the chairperson and members are not eligible for further employment under the Central or a state government. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q3.Consider the following individuals: 1. Chairperson, National Commission for Scheduled Castes 2. Chairperson, National Commission for Women 3. Chairperson, National Commission for Backward Classes 4. Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities How many of the above are ex-officio members of the National Human Rights Commission?

Q4.Consider the following pairs regarding the composition and appointment of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): 1. Chairperson : A retired Chief Justice of India or a retired judge of the Supreme Court. 2. Appointment Committee : Headed by the President of India. 3. Member : A serving judge of the Supreme Court appointed without consulting the Chief Justice of India. 4. Ex-officio Member : Chairperson of the National Commission for Minorities. How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q5.Statement I: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) has limited powers with regard to human rights violations by the armed forces. Statement II: In cases of human rights violations by the armed forces, the NHRC can independently investigate the matter and direct disciplinary action.

Q6.Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Parliament: 1. It is the primary legislative organ of the Union government. 2. Its central position in the Indian democratic system is a consequence of adopting the parliamentary form of government. 3. The 'Westminster model of government' is another term for the parliamentary system adopted by India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q7.Consider the following statements about the constitutional provisions for the Parliament: 1. The articles of the Constitution that deal with the Parliament are contained in Part V. 2. The relevant articles cover a wide range of subjects including the Parliament's organisation, duration, and procedures. 3. Articles 79 to 122 exclusively deal with the powers and privileges of the members of Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q8.With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following attributes: 1. Legislative organ of the Union government 2. A central and pre-eminent position in the political system 3. An institution based on the Westminster model 4. An organ of government whose details are in Part VI of the Constitution How many of the above attributes are correctly stated?

Q9.Statement I: The Constitution of India, within Articles 79 to 122, lays down provisions concerning the procedures of the Parliament. Statement II: The adoption of the Westminster model of government, which is a form of parliamentary government, is the reason for the Parliament's pre-eminent and central position in the Indian democratic system.

Q10.Consider the following pairs: 1. Part V of the Constitution : Deals with the Parliament 2. Articles 79 to 122 : Deals with the organisation and composition of the Parliament 3. Westminster model : Parliamentary form of government How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q11.Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the Parliament of India: 1. The Parliament of India consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only. 2. The President of India is not a member of either House of Parliament but is considered an integral part of it. 3. The Indian model of including the head of the executive as part of the legislature is based on the American pattern. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q12.With reference to the composition of the Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements: 1. The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at 250. 2. The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories. 3. At present, representatives of union territories in the Rajya Sabha are more in number than the members nominated by the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q13.Consider the following statements: Statement I: The President of India is an integral part of the Parliament. Statement II: The parliamentary form of government, as adopted in India, emphasises the interdependence between the legislative and executive organs. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q14.Consider the following regarding the election and nomination to the Lok Sabha: 1. Representatives of states are directly elected based on the principle of universal adult franchise. 2. The Constitution itself prescribes the manner of choosing representatives from the union territories. 3. The President can nominate two members from the Anglo-Indian community if the community is not adequately represented. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q15.Consider the following facts: 1. The Hindi names 'Rajya Sabha' and 'Lok Sabha' were adopted in 1954. 2. The voting age for Lok Sabha elections was reduced from 21 to 18 years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988. 3. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed at 552. 4. The provision for Anglo-Indian nomination to the Lok Sabha was extended till 2020 by the 95th Amendment Act, 2009. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q16.Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional provisions for representation in the Lok Sabha: 1. Each state is allotted seats in the Lok Sabha such that the ratio between the number of seats and its population is the same for all states. 2. The provision for maintaining a uniform ratio of seats to population between states does not apply to states with a population below six million. 3. Within a state, each territorial constituency is divided in a manner that the ratio between its population and the number of seats allotted to it is the same throughout the state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q17.With reference to the delimitation of constituencies for the Lok Sabha, consider the following pairs: 1. 42nd Amendment Act : Froze the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha at the 1971 level. 2. 84th Amendment Act : Empowered the government to undertake readjustment of constituencies based on the 1991 census. 3. 87th Amendment Act : Provided for the delimitation of constituencies on the basis of the 2001 census. How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q18.The Constitution of India did not adopt the system of proportional representation for elections to the Lok Sabha. Consider the following as potential reasons for this decision: 1. The complexity of the system for voters, given the low literacy levels at the time. 2. The unsuitability of the system for a parliamentary government due to its tendency to create instability. 3. The high expenditure associated with implementing the system. 4. The elimination of intimate contact between voters and their representatives. How many of the above were cited as reasons or demerits for not adopting the system?

Q19.Consider the following statements regarding the reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha: 1. The Constitution provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes on the basis of their population ratios. 2. The election to a reserved seat is conducted through a system of separate electorates where only members of the respective community can vote. 3. A member belonging to a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe is not debarred from contesting a general (non-reserved) seat. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q20.Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Constitution of India has adopted the system of territorial representation, also known as the First-Past-the-Post system, for elections to the Lok Sabha. Statement II: The system of proportional representation was considered unsuitable for India's parliamentary government as it tends to multiply political parties, leading to instability. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q21.Consider the following statements regarding the duration of the Houses of Parliament: 1. The Constitution of India fixes the term of office for a member of the Rajya Sabha at six years. 2. The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended during a national emergency by a law of Parliament for one year at a time. 3. The President's decision to dissolve the Lok Sabha before the completion of its term cannot be challenged in a court of law. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q22.Under the Representation of the People Act (1951), a person shall be disqualified for being elected as a Member of Parliament for which of the following reasons? 1. Being found guilty of corrupt practices in elections. 2. Holding an office of profit in a corporation where the government has at least a 25 per cent share. 3. Detention under a preventive detention law. 4. Being punished for preaching and practising social crimes such as dowry and sati. How many of the above are correct grounds for disqualification?

Q23.Statement I: If a person is elected to both Houses of Parliament, they must intimate within 10 days in which House they desire to serve, failing which their seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant. Statement II: If a person is elected as a member of both the Parliament and a state legislature, their seat in Parliament becomes vacant if they do not resign their seat in the state legislature within 14 days.

Q24.Consider the following pairs regarding the disqualification of a Member of Parliament: 1. Ground: Holding an office of profit under the Union government - Deciding Authority: President of India 2. Ground: Disqualification on the ground of defection - Deciding Authority: Chairman of Rajya Sabha or Speaker of Lok Sabha 3. Ground: Election of a disqualified person is found to be void - Deciding Authority: Supreme Court How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q25.With reference to the qualifications for membership of Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. A person must be not less than 30 years of age to be chosen as a member of the Lok Sabha. 2. A candidate contesting an election to the Rajya Sabha must be registered as an elector in the particular state from which they are contesting. 3. Before taking their seat, every member must make and subscribe to an oath before a person authorised by the Election Commission for this purpose. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q26.Consider the following regarding the individual privileges of Members of Parliament: 1. They cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament in criminal cases. 2. They are exempted from jury service. 3. They have absolute freedom of speech in Parliament without any restrictions. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q27.With reference to the remuneration of Members and Officers of Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India explicitly provides for a pension for the members of Parliament. 2. The salaries of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. 3. The salaries of Members of Parliament are determined by Parliament through legislation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q28.Parliamentary privileges in India are based on several sources. Consider the following potential sources: 1. Constitutional provisions 2. Various laws made by Parliament 3. Rules of both the Houses 4. Parliamentary conventions 5. Judicial interpretations How many of the above are considered sources for parliamentary privileges in India?

Q29.Consider the following statements: Statement I: A person who is a Union Minister but not a member of either House of Parliament can participate in the proceedings of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. Statement II: The Constitution extends parliamentary privileges to Union ministers and the Attorney General of India, entitling them to speak in the proceedings of a House of Parliament.

Q30.With reference to 'breach of privilege' and 'contempt of the House', consider the following actions: 1. Disregarding the immunities of a member of the House. 2. Disobeying a legitimate order of the House. 3. An act that obstructs a member in the performance of their functions. How many of the above actions can be treated as 'contempt of the House'?

Q31.Consider the following statements regarding the Speaker of the Lok Sabha: 1. The Speaker's decision on whether a bill is a Money Bill is final and cannot be challenged in any court. 2. When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration, the Speaker can vote in the first instance. 3. The Speaker does not vacate the office upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha and continues until the first meeting of the newly-elected Lok Sabha. 4. The Speaker acts as the ex-officio chairman of the conference of presiding officers of legislative bodies in the country. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q32.With reference to the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, which of the following bills will NOT lapse? 1. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha. 2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha. 3. A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the President. 4. A bill for which the President has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Q33.Consider the following statements regarding the historical evolution of the presiding officers in India: 1. The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India under the Government of India Act of 1919. 2. The Government of India Act of 1935 changed the nomenclatures of President and Deputy President of the Central Legislative Assembly to Speaker and Deputy Speaker respectively, which came into effect immediately. 3. G.V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q34.Consider the following pairs: 1. Leader of the House : Office mentioned in the Constitution of India 2. Leader of the Opposition : Office mentioned in a Parliamentary Statute 3. Whip : Office based on conventions of parliamentary government How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q35.Consider the following statements comparing the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha: 1. While the Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha, the Chairman can be removed only if he is removed from the office of the Vice-President. 2. The Speaker presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament, a power not available to the Chairman. 3. When a resolution for their removal is under consideration, both the Speaker and the Chairman cannot vote in the first instance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q36.Consider the following pairs regarding questions asked in the Parliament and the colour of the paper on which they are printed: 1. Starred Question : Green 2. Unstarred Question : Light Pink 3. Short Notice Question : White 4. Question to Private Member : Yellow How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q37.With reference to the Adjournment Motion in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. It is regarded as an extraordinary device as it interrupts the normal business of the House. 2. It requires the support of at least 50 members to be admitted. 3. The Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of this device. 4. It should not revive discussion on a matter that has been discussed in the same session. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q38.Consider the following statements regarding parliamentary devices: 1. Both the Zero Hour and the Calling Attention Motion are considered Indian innovations in parliamentary procedure. 2. The Zero Hour is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure, whereas the Calling Attention Motion is not. 3. The Zero Hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the regular business of the House is taken up. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q39.Consider the following statements: Statement I: The passage of a No-Confidence Motion in the Lok Sabha leads to the removal of the ministry from office. Statement II: A No-Confidence Motion is rooted in Article 75 of the Constitution, which states that the council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q40.Consider the following descriptions of Closure Motions used in Parliament: 1. Simple Closure: A member moves that the matter has been sufficiently discussed and should now be put to vote. 2. Kangaroo Closure: The undiscussed clauses of a bill are put to vote along with the discussed ones due to want of time. 3. Guillotine Closure: Only important clauses are taken up for debate and voting, and intervening clauses are skipped over. 4. Closure by Compartments: Clauses of a bill are grouped into parts, and the entire part is put to vote as a whole. How many of the above descriptions are correctly stated?

Q41.Consider the following statements regarding the passage of an ordinary bill in the Parliament: 1. An ordinary bill can be introduced only by a minister. 2. The introduction of the bill and its publication in the Gazette constitute the second reading of the bill. 3. During the third reading, the bill is discussed clause-by-clause and amendments can be moved. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q42.According to Article 110 of the Constitution, a bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains 'only' provisions dealing with certain matters. How many of the following are considered matters of a money bill under this definition? 1. The imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties. 2. The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government. 3. The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India. 4. The imposition of a tax by a local authority for local purposes.

Q43.Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend a Money Bill; it can only make recommendations which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept. Statement II: A Financial Bill (Category I) is treated like an ordinary bill in all respects, including its introduction in either House of Parliament. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q44.Consider the following pairs with respect to Parliamentary grants: 1. Vote of Credit : A grant for meeting an unexpected demand upon the resources of India. 2. Excess Grant : A grant for a new service not contemplated in the budget for the current year. 3. Supplementary Grant : A grant when the amount authorised for a particular service is found to be insufficient for that year. 4. Token Grant : A grant for a special purpose which forms no part of the current service of any financial year. How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q45.The budget consists of expenditure 'charged' upon the Consolidated Fund of India, which is non-votable by the Parliament. How many of the following expenditures are 'charged' upon the Consolidated Fund of India? 1. Salaries and allowances of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. Pensions of the judges of High Courts. 3. Salary, allowances and pension of the chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission. 4. Any expenditure declared by the President to be so charged.

Q46.Consider the following powers. In how many of the above matters does the Rajya Sabha possess exclusive or special powers not shared with the Lok Sabha? 1. Authorising the Parliament to create new All-India Services. 2. Initiating the process for the removal of the Vice-President. 3. Authorising the Parliament to make a law on a subject in the State List. 4. Approving a proclamation of emergency when the Lok Sabha is dissolved.

Q47.Which of the following factors limit the sovereignty of the Indian Parliament, distinguishing it from the British Parliament? 1. The written nature of the Constitution. 2. The federal system of government with a division of powers. 3. The system of judicial review. 4. The presence of justiciable Fundamental Rights. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q48.Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct? 1. A resolution for the discontinuance of a national emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament. 2. Both Houses have equal powers in the introduction and passage of financial bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India. 3. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

Q49.Statement I: The Rajya Sabha is considered an essential part of India's federal system, protecting the interests of the states. Statement II: The Rajya Sabha has the exclusive power to authorize the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State List.

Q50.In how many of the following matters are the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha unequal to that of the Lok Sabha? 1. Introduction of a Constitutional amendment bill. 2. Removal of the Vice-President. 3. Voting on the demands for grants in the budget. 4. Approval of a proclamation of national emergency.

Q51.Under the Constitution of India, the Parliament is empowered to make laws on the subjects enumerated in the State List under certain abnormal circumstances. Consider the following circumstances: 1. When the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect. 2. When a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation. 3. When the President issues a directive on the advice of the Council of Ministers. 4. When necessary to give effect to international agreements, treaties, and conventions. 5. When two or more states make a joint request to the Parliament. How many of the above circumstances are mentioned in the Constitution as empowering the Parliament to legislate on State List subjects?

Q52.Consider the following statements regarding financial procedures in the Indian Parliament: Statement I: The 'rule of lapse' dictates that any money granted by the Parliament that remains unspent by the end of the financial year expires and returns to the Consolidated Fund of India. Statement II: This practice, while facilitating effective parliamentary financial control, often leads to a heavy rush of expenditure towards the close of the financial year, popularly known as 'March Rush'.

Q53.The Lok Sabha can express a lack of confidence in the government through various means. Consider the following actions: 1. Passing a censure motion 2. Rejecting a money bill 3. Passing a cut motion 4. Not passing a motion of thanks on the President's inaugural address How many of the above actions can be interpreted as the Lok Sabha expressing a lack of confidence in the government?

Q54.Consider the following statements regarding the effectiveness of parliamentary control over the executive: 1. The technical nature of the demands for grants hinders effective financial scrutiny by parliamentarians who are often laymen. 2. The increased recourse to 'guillotine' has expanded the scope of financial control by ensuring all demands are discussed. 3. The frequent promulgation of ordinances by the President dilutes the Parliament's legislative powers. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Q55.With reference to the judicial powers and functions of the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. It can recommend the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner to the President. 2. It can punish its members or outsiders for the breach of its privileges or its contempt. 3. It can impeach the President for the violation of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q56.With reference to the sessions of Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. Prorogation terminates a session of the House, while adjournment only terminates a sitting. 2. The power of prorogation lies with the President of India, whereas the power of adjournment lies with the presiding officer of the House. 3. Unlike adjournment, prorogation leads to the lapse of all pending bills before the House.

Q57.Consider the following statements regarding parliamentary motions: 1. A Censure Motion can be moved against an individual minister, but a No-Confidence Motion can only be moved against the entire council of ministers. 2. It is mandatory to state the reasons for the adoption of a Censure Motion, but not for a No-Confidence Motion. 3. The passage of a Censure Motion in the Lok Sabha necessitates the resignation of the council of ministers.

Q58.Consider the following statements regarding Public and Private Bills: 1. A Public Bill can only be introduced by a minister, whereas a Private Bill can be introduced by any member of Parliament other than a minister. 2. The introduction of a Public Bill requires a seven-day notice, while a Private Bill requires a one-month notice. 3. The rejection of a Public Bill by the House has no implication on the government, similar to the rejection of a Private Bill.

Q59.Which of the following statements regarding the legislative process for a Money Bill is/are NOT correct? 1. It can be introduced in either House of Parliament, but only by a minister. 2. The Rajya Sabha must return the bill, with or without recommendations, to the Lok Sabha within 14 days. 3. The President of India can return a Money Bill for the reconsideration of the Parliament.

Q60.Consider the following pairs regarding the allocation of seats in the Indian Parliament: 1. Gujarat : 26 Lok Sabha Seats 2. Karnataka : 12 Rajya Sabha Seats 3. West Bengal : 40 Lok Sabha Seats 4. Bihar : 18 Rajya Sabha Seats How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q61.Consider the following statements regarding the office of the Deputy Speaker, in light of the functioning of the 17th Lok Sabha: 1. Article 93 of the Constitution mandates that the Lok Sabha shall, as soon as may be, choose a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker. 2. The 17th Lok Sabha was the first in Indian parliamentary history to function for its entire five-year term without electing a Deputy Speaker. 3. The Constitution specifies a strict timeline within which the election of the Deputy Speaker must be completed after the first sitting of the Lok Sabha. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q62.Following the controversy over the non-selection of certain states' tableaux for the 2024 Republic Day parade, a group of opposition MPs decides to hold the government accountable in the Lok Sabha. Considering the available parliamentary procedures, analyze the following statements: 1. They can move a Censure Motion specifically against the Minister of Defence and the Minister of Culture, citing the 'biased and non-transparent' selection process as the reason. 2. They can move a No-Confidence Motion, which, if passed, would censure the government for its specific policy on tableau selection but not require its resignation. 3. If a Public Bill introduced by the Minister of Defence concerning the new rotational tableau plan is defeated, it is considered a parliamentary disapproval that may lead to the government's resignation. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q63.Considering the recent discussions on reviving Private Members' Bills (PMBs), which have been described as a 'gold mine' for democracy, analyze the following statements that differentiate them from Public Bills: 1. A Private Member's Bill requires a one-month notice for introduction, whereas a Public Bill requires only a seven-day notice. 2. The drafting of a PMB is the responsibility of the concerned government department in consultation with the law department. 3. The rejection of a PMB in the House has no implication on the government's stability, unlike a Public Bill whose rejection may lead to the government's resignation. 4. A PMB can be introduced by any Member of Parliament, including those nominated by the President, as long as they are not a minister. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q64.Considering the recent discussions on replacing the First-Past-The-Post (FPTP) system with Proportional Representation (PR) for Lok Sabha elections, analyze the following arguments: 1. The concern that PR systems can lead to unstable coalition governments echoes the Constituent Assembly's original apprehension about the system's unsuitability for a parliamentary government. 2. The argument that PR systems are more complex for voters to understand aligns with a primary reason cited in the Constitution for not adopting it, considering the low literacy scale at the time. 3. The current debate highlights that PR systems are less susceptible to gerrymandering, a problem that was a primary consideration for the framers of the Constitution when they chose the FPTP system. 4. The Law Commission's proposal for a Mixed-Member Proportional Representation (MMPR) system suggests using the 1971 census for seat allocation to maintain federal balance. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q65.Considering the recent instances of cross-voting in the 2024 Rajya Sabha elections, evaluate the following statements: 1. An MLA who cross-votes in a Rajya Sabha election can be immediately disqualified from the State Legislative Assembly under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law). 2. The vote of an MLA from a political party is considered invalid if they show their marked ballot paper to an agent of another party. 3. The Constitution of India explicitly fixes the term of office for a member of the Rajya Sabha at six years. 4. Following the 2024 Supreme Court ruling, an MLA accepting a bribe to cross-vote in a Rajya Sabha election is protected from criminal prosecution by parliamentary immunity. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q66.Considering the recent Supreme Court observations on delays in deciding defection cases, evaluate the correctness of the following statements regarding the authority to disqualify a Member of Parliament (MP): 1. The President of India's decision is final on whether an MP is subject to disqualifications mentioned in the Representation of the People Act (1951), and this decision must be based on the Election Commission's opinion. 2. The question of an MP's disqualification on the ground of defection is exclusively decided by the Presiding Officer of the House, and their decision is final and immune from judicial review as per the original Tenth Schedule. 3. The 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) suggested that the power to decide defection cases should be transferred from the Speaker to the President, who would act on the advice of the Election Commission. 4. An MP can be disqualified for voluntarily giving up party membership even without a formal resignation, as interpreted by the Supreme Court in the Ravi S. Naik v. Union of India (1994) case. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q67.With reference to the sources of Parliamentary Privileges in India, consider the following statements: 1. Constitutional provisions, such as Article 105, form a primary source. 2. Judicial interpretations, including the 2024 Supreme Court ruling in the Sita Soren case, continuously shape the scope of these privileges. 3. A comprehensive law codifying all privileges was enacted by Parliament following the recommendations of the Committee of Privileges in 2008. 4. The Parliament of Canada Act, 1985, is explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution as a guiding framework until Indian laws are made. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q68.In the context of the recent discussions about moving a resolution for the removal of the Vice-President, consider the following statements regarding the constitutional procedure: 1. The resolution for the removal of the Vice-President must be initiated in the Rajya Sabha. 2. The resolution must be passed in the Rajya Sabha by a majority of all the then members of the House. 3. The Lok Sabha must agree to the resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha, which is interpreted as requiring a simple majority. 4. A minimum of 14 days' advance notice is mandatory before the resolution can be moved in the Rajya Sabha. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q69.In the context of declining legislative productivity and frequent disruptions as highlighted in recent reports, consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Lok Sabha Speaker to manage the House: 1. The Speaker's decision to adjourn the House or suspend a meeting due to a lack of quorum is final and cannot be challenged in court. 2. The Speaker can permit a member to address the House in their mother-tongue, which facilitates broader participation despite official language provisions. 3. When a resolution for the Speaker's own removal is under consideration, they can vote in the first instance but cannot exercise a casting vote. 4. The Speaker's power to maintain order and decorum is subject to judicial review to ensure it is not used to suppress opposition voices. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q70.With reference to the recent formation of a 'shadow cabinet' in Odisha and the established parliamentary practices in India, consider the following statements: 1. The office of the Leader of the Opposition is a constitutional post, similar to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. 2. The institution of a 'Shadow Cabinet' is based on parliamentary conventions and is not mentioned in the Constitution of India or any Parliamentary Statute. 3. The Leader of the Opposition is entitled to salary and allowances equivalent to that of a cabinet minister, a provision established by a Parliamentary Statute. 4. In the British system, the Leader of the Opposition is often called the 'alternative Prime Minister', a concept that underpins the function of a Shadow Cabinet. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q71.In light of the recent discussions surrounding the vacancy of the Deputy Speaker's office in the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India explicitly mandates that the post of Deputy Speaker must be offered to the main opposition party to ensure institutional balance. 2. The date for the election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the President of India, similar to the process for the Speaker. 3. When presiding over a joint sitting of Parliament in the Speaker's absence, the Deputy Speaker assumes all the powers of the Speaker. 4. The Deputy Speaker, upon being appointed as a member of any parliamentary committee, automatically becomes its chairman. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q72.Consider the legislative process for the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, which includes a controversial proposal to re-criminalize adultery. If the debate on this specific provision becomes excessively long, the Speaker might employ various Closure Motions to conclude the discussion. In this context, consider the following types of motions: 1. Guillotine Closure: Undiscussed clauses of the BNS, including the adultery provision, are put to vote as the allotted time expires. 2. Kangaroo Closure: Only important clauses of the BNS, such as the one on adultery, are taken up for debate and voting, while intervening clauses are skipped. 3. Closure by Compartments: The clauses of the lengthy BNS bill are grouped into parts, and each part is debated and voted on as a whole. 4. Simple Closure: A member moves that the debate on the adultery clause has been sufficient and it should now be put to vote. How many of the above procedural actions are valid types of Closure Motions that could be applied?

Q73.A recent news report highlighted the erosion of Question Hour's effectiveness, noting it operated only 60% of the time in the 17th Lok Sabha. In this context of declining parliamentary oversight, consider the following statements about Question Hour and its associated procedures: 1. A question distinguished by an asterisk (Starred Question) requires a written answer, and therefore, supplementary questions cannot follow. 2. Questions can be addressed to private members if the subject matter relates to a Bill or resolution for which that member is responsible. 3. The Zero Hour, which starts immediately after the Question Hour, is an Indian innovation that is explicitly mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. 4. The list of questions to be asked to private members is printed on yellow-coloured paper to distinguish it from other types of questions. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q74.In the context of the Prime Minister's reply to the Motion of Thanks in February 2024, consider the following statements regarding its procedural and political implications: 1. The defeat of the Motion of Thanks in the Lok Sabha is considered a defeat of the government, as the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House. 2. Unlike a No-Confidence Motion, a Censure Motion can be moved against an individual minister, whereas the defeat of the Motion of Thanks implies censure of the entire Council of Ministers. 3. If amendments proposed by the opposition during the Motion of Thanks debate are passed in the Lok Sabha, the government is constitutionally obligated to resign. 4. The Rajya Sabha can also express a lack of confidence in the government by defeating the Motion of Thanks, leading to the government's fall. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q75.The recent Supreme Court decision to examine the use of the Money Bill route brings Article 110 into focus. Considering the provisions mentioned in the Constitution, which of the following, if included in a bill, would NOT be sufficient on its own to classify it as a Money Bill? 1. A provision for the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties. 2. A provision empowering the government to notify rules regarding the service conditions of members of a tribunal. 3. A provision for the imposition, abolition, or regulation of a tax by a local authority for local purposes. 4. A provision for the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q76.Considering the legal and constitutional framework governing Members of Parliament, which of the following statements is NOT correct? 1. The Constitution of India empowers Parliament to determine the salaries of its members, but it does not contain an explicit provision for their pension. 2. The salaries and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and are therefore not subject to the annual vote of Parliament. 3. While many parliamentary privileges are based on conventions derived from the British House of Commons, the freedom from arrest in civil cases during a parliamentary session is explicitly granted by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. 4. The sumptuary allowance for the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is determined under the same Act that governs the salaries of all Members of Parliament, namely the Salaries, Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954.